Free Practice Questions for PRMIA 8006 Exam

Overcollateralization is when the notes issued by the special purpose vehicle are less in value compared to the underlying pool of assets, thereby providing a buffer to absorb losses. Excess spread implies that the notes issued carry a lower interest rate than the interest rate received on the underlying assets. Cash reserves are reserves intended to take first hits when losses happen. All of these are valid credit enhancements for structured products. Additionally, 'insurance wraps' are also used as a credit enhancement. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

'Margin requirements' do not mean anything in this context and are not a valid credit enhancement used for credit derivatives.

Since AUD 1 = USD 0.6831, and USD 1 = SEK 8.1329, AUD 1 = SEK 8.1329*0.6831 = 5.5556.

It is important to remember how exchange rates are generally quoted. Most exchange rates are quoted in terms of how many foreign currencies does USD 1 buy. Therefore, a rate of 99 for the JPY means that USD 1 is equal to JPY 99. However, there are four major world currencies where the rate quote convention is the other way round - these are EUR, GBP, AUD and NZD. For these currencies, the FX quote implies how many US dollars can one unit of these currencies buy. So a quote of "1.1023" for the Euro means EUR 1 is equal to USD 1.1023 and not the other way round.

When calculating cross rates, it is important to pay attention to how the rates are quoted. This particular question is quoted in a very straightforward way because it specifies exactly what the rate means, eg by saying USD/AUD it clarifies that the rate is the number of USDs per AUD. If the question is not clear, remember how exchange rates are quoted - all are against 1 USD, except for EUR, GBP, AUD and NZD where it is the other way round.

The loss to the fund manager is $20*100 = $2,000. The initial margin placed was $5,000. After the loss is charged to his account, the margin balance is only $3,000 ($5,000 - $2,000). The margin to be maintained is $5,000. Therefore the margin call is $2,000.

Note that there would have been no margin call till the balance in the margin account had reduced to the 'maintenance' level of $4,000. So if the price had fallen by $5, and the loss had been $500, there would have been no margin call. But when the margin call would be made, it would require the balance to be brought up to the initial margin of $5,000 (and not the maintenance margin of $4,000).

A zero coupon bond has a Macaulay duration equal to its maturity, ie in this case 5 years. We can calculate modified duration from Macaulay duration by using the following relationship:

Modified duration = Macaulay duration/(1 + y) where y is the yield.

Therefore the correct answer is 5 / (1.05) = 4.76.

Or intuitively, all the other answers appear clearly incorrect: 5 and 5.25 are too high, and 4 is too low. Therefore the only reasonable choice is 4.76.

Since the note pays daily LIBOR, there is no interest rate risk associated with this instrument. Note that interest rate risk for a fixed income instrument arises when the current interest rate changes to a rate different from that the instrument pays. In this case, the rate floats, and is reset daily, therefore there is no risk and the duration is 0. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.