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What is a benefit of performing device compliance?

A.

Verification of the latest OS patches

B.

Device classification and authorization

C.

Providing multi-factor authentication

D.

Providing attribute-driven policies

Which two Cisco Umbrella security categories are used to prevent command-and-control callbacks on port 53 and protect users from being tricked into providing confidential information? (Choose two.)

A.

DNS Tunneling VPN

B.

Dynamic DNS

C.

Newly Seen Domains

D.

Potentially Harmful Domains

E.

Phishing Attacks

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

Refer to the exhibit.

How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A.

Traffic is proximed through the intelligent proxy.

B.

Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.

C.

Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled and allowed.

D.

Traffic is allowed but logged.

What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?

A.

to allow for the dynamic configuration of control plane applications

B.

to enable the controller to make changes

C.

to enable the controller to use REST

D.

to allow for the static configuration of control plane applications

What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?

A.

It includes multiple interfaces and access rules between interfaces are customizable

B.

It is a Layer 3 segment and includes one port and customizable access rules

C.

It allows ARP traffic with a single access rule

D.

It has an IP address on its BVI interface and is used for management traffic

What are two functions of TAXII in threat intelligence sharing? (Choose two.)

A.

determines the "what" of threat intelligence

B.

Supports STIX information

C.

allows users to describe threat motivations and abilities

D.

exchanges trusted anomaly intelligence information

E.

determines how threat intelligence information is relayed

Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass list automatically for web filtering?

A.

filters

B.

group key

C.

company key

D.

connector

What does endpoint isolation in Cisco AMP for Endpoints security protect from?

A.

an infection spreading across the network E

B.

a malware spreading across the user device

C.

an infection spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

D.

a malware spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco CTA

D.

Cisco ASA

An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUI into a new endpoint group. Which

probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

A.

NetFlow

B.

NMAP

C.

SNMP

D.

DHCP

Refer to the exhibit.

An organization is using DHCP Snooping within their network. A user on VLAN 41 on a new switch is

complaining that an IP address is not being obtained. Which command should be configured on the switch

interface in order to provide the user with network connectivity?

A.

ip dhcp snooping verify mac-address

B.

ip dhcp snooping limit 41

C.

ip dhcp snooping vlan 41

D.

ip dhcp snooping trust

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK

and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

A.

AES-192

B.

IKEv1

C.

AES-256

D.

ESP