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What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?

A.

1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH operates over links up to 70 km.

B.

1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber, and 10008ASE-ZX needs a conditioning patch cable with a multimode.

C.

1000BASE-LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000BASE-ZX operates over links up to 70 km

D.

1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over multimode fiber, and 1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate.

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

PC A and the file server. Which commend must be configured on switch A to prevent interruption of other communications?

A.

switch port trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

switch port trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking (SDN)?

A.

Data

B.

Control

C.

Application

D.

Services

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

A.

DHCPREQUEST

B.

DHCPDISCOVER

C.

DHCPACK

D.

DHCPOFFER

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

Exhibit.

The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that was successfully tested. The Interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a 'down" status. What is the cause of this issue?

A.

The switches are configured with incompatible duplex settings.

B.

The distance between the two switches is not supported by Cut5.

C.

The speed settings on the switches are mismatched.

D.

The portfast command is missing from the configuration.

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and must now remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

B.

no login local

C.

no service password-encryption

D.

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

E.

no hostname CPE

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP slate on the right.

What is a zero-day exploit?

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server.

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

A.

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.

Enable "box by box" configuration and deployment.

C.

Decipher simple password policies.

D.

Increase recurrent management costs.

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

A.

one

B.

four

C.

seven

D.

nine

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?

A.

interface port-channel 2channel-group 2 mode desirable

B.

interface fasteinernet 1/1channel-group 2 mode active

C.

interface fasteinernet 1/1channel-group 2 mode on

D.

interface port-channel 2channel-group 2 mode auto

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

A.

SLB

B.

FHRP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRP

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addresses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addresses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.

A.

FlexConnect

B.

SE-Connect

C.

bridge

D.

local

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.

Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

A.

virtual interface

B.

management interface

C.

console port

D.

service port

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

A.

10.10101

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.101014

What is the function of a server?

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

How does WPA3 improve security?

A.

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.

It uses TKIP for encryption.

Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.16.32 254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC