Summer Sale Special - Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: sntaclus

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders ' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth /accommodate

C.

Collaborate/problem solve

D.

Compromise/ reconcile

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?

A.

Integrated risk management, non-event risks, and project resilience

B.

Representation of uncertainty, strategies for opportunities, and strategies for overall project risk

C.

Dormancy, proximity, and propinquity

D.

Simulation, sensitivity analysis, and decision tree analysis

Which are the most important competencies required for a project manager?

A.

Leadership, bilingualism, experience, and technical Knowledge

B.

PMP certification, experience, technical Knowledge, and post-graduate education

C.

Leadership, strategic and business management, project management knowledge, and technical knowledge

D.

Communication skills, project management knowledge, PMP certification, and availability to travel

Success is measured by benefits realization for a:

A.

strategic plan

B.

project

C.

portfolio

D.

program

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure an effective requirements elicitation.

What should the business analyst do?

A.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

B.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

C.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

D.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

A project manager is calculating the current budget. The earned value (EV) of the project is lower than the actual cost (AC) of the project.

How should the project manager report the status of the project?

A.

The project is at risk as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

B.

The project is within budget and within schedule.

C.

The project is within budget but is delayed.

D.

The project is tracking well as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

What three strategies are used to respond to threats?

A.

Escalate, accept, and mitigate

B.

Accept share, and avoid

C.

Escalate, transfer, and exploit

D.

Mitigate, accept, and prioritize

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

A.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

" Tailoring " is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

A.

0.88

B.

1.12

C.

0.58

D.

1.58

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

A project ' s business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won ' t have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

When executing a project, a recently hired subject matter expert (SME) who reviewed the execution progress remarked that the schedule could be crashed and that the schedule was not assessed properly. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Update the schedule baseline

B.

Review the schedule baseline

C.

Initiate a change request

D.

Update the risk register

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

Which project management process is used by the project manager to ensure that stakeholders receive timely and relevant information?

A.

lan Communications Management

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

A project team is working on a complex product and the work breakdown structure (WBS) is finalized. The team determines that the best approach is to use an adaptive delivery method and is now tasked with converting the WBS for adaptive delivery.

How can the team manage the conversion of the existing WBS to an adaptive approach?

A.

Generate use cases for each WBS element and prepare a requirements document.

B.

Produce a release plan for each WBS element and organize them into iterations for delivery.

C.

Create themes for each WBS element and organize them into iterations for delivery.

D.

Organize the WBS into a set of related themes, epics, and user stories.

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

A project team member is estimating the cost of activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?

A.

Bottom-up estimating

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Parametric estimating