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Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

When should quality planning be performed?

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

A project veers off track due to scope creep. The project management team requests an immediate response from the major stakeholders.

What should the project manager do next to avoid project failure?

A.

Adopt a change management approach and delay the project to decide on the direction.

B.

Develop a focus group to face the issue and decide on the appropriate direction.

C.

Request a meeting with top management to state concerns about their ability to handle the situation.

D.

Delay the project by adopting a fast-fail approach, mitigating the risk of having a bigger impact on the company.

Given the following information, what is the schedule variance (SV) for this project?

    Early start date (ES): 16 weeks

    Actual time: 12 weeks

    Schedule performance index (SPI): 1.3

A.

5

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

When establishing a contingency reserve, including time, money and resources, how is the risk being handled?

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

A project team is tasked with decomposing the scope to enable detailed cost and duration estimates. What should the team do to achieve this requirement?

A.

Prepare a WBS with task sequencing and detail the duration and cost estimates.

B.

Prepare a WBS for immediate tasks in the plan to work package level for duration and cost estimates.

C.

Prepare a work breakdown structure (WBS) to include each deliverable with a target duration and cost estimate.

D.

Prepare a WBS to work package level to effectively manage duration and cost estimates.

A subject matter expert (SME) was recently assigned to a project to manage the new compliance requirement. The SME claimed that the activity's prioritization needed to change and the schedule could be cut to mitigate the effect of this new compliance need.

How should the project manager proceed?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment with the team.

C.

Update the schedule to include compliance.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

B.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery time line.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan. What is the main purpose of that detailed plan?

A.

It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope

B.

It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project

C.

It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled and validated

D.

It provides the needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group

The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?

A.

Organizational structure type, Key stakeholders, and protect funds

B.

Rules. policies and norms

C.

Project management software, resources availability and risk checklist

D.

Governance elements, team policies, and organizational goals

A project team working on an automobile manufacturing project is detailing the parts needed for a car door design. The door is composed of several parts that have to be developed in sequence, as the frame is needed before other parts can be designed and built. What activity is the team involved in?

A.

Creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Identifying risks and issues in the project

C.

Developing a stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Developing a communications management plan

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Actual cost

C.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

D.

Expert judgment

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

Which is a method of prototyping that creates a functioning representation of the final finished product to the user?

A.

Low-fidelity prototyping

B.

High-fidelity prototyping

C.

Data prototyping

D.

Report prototyping

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Expected monetary value analysis

D.

Decision tree analysis

What describes the relationship between projects, programs, and portfolios?

A.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the "right" programs and projects.

B.

Project management focuses on doing the "right" programs and portfolios.

C.

Program management focuses on doing the "specific" portfolios and projects.

D.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the ''specific’’ programs and projects.

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

Which of the following does a portfolio combine?

A.

Projects, change management, and operations

B.

Projects, programs, and risks

C.

Projects, programs, and operations

D.

Operations, strategies, and business continuity

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float. What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

A.

75-100%

B.

0-25%

C.

25-50%

D.

50-75%

A project is delivering an integrated solution to an external client on a fixed-price contract. The project has a significant technical component and has a dedicated technical project manager working with a business program manager and the client's project manager. The technical lead is requesting two new developers.

Which plan should the project manager use to identify who is responsible for finding the budget for additional developers?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Business management plan

C.

Stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Resource management plan

A project manager needs to determine the schedule variance (SV). The project manager's latest schedule indicates 14 units of work completed against a plan of 23 units.

What is the SV?

A.

-9

B.

37

C.

9

D.

322

A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current.

* Planned value = 30

* Actual cost = 35

* Earned value = 28

Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?

A.

Schedule Variance (SV) = 2

B.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.80

C.

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.93

D.

Cost Variance (CV) = 7

Which are the most important competencies required for a project manager?

A.

Leadership, bilingualism, experience, and technical Knowledge

B.

PMP certification, experience, technical Knowledge, and post-graduate education

C.

Leadership, strategic and business management, project management knowledge, and technical knowledge

D.

Communication skills, project management knowledge, PMP certification, and availability to travel

An international company that is starting to practice an adaptive approach has several development teams located globally. They are having problems with multiple time zones and repetitive project schedule slippage.

What effective tools should the project teams use to collaborate?

A.

Focus on developing products by only using teams that are colocated.

B.

Adopt an iterative development approach and conduct virtual meetings.

C.

Benchmark and adopt best practices that are being used by the competition.

D.

Arrange frequent colocated meetings and let the teams work together.