Free Practice Questions for IIC C11 Exam

Loss adjusters are required to conduct themselves with professionalism, fairness, and integrity. Their responsibilities include explaining how coverage applies, gathering facts, assessing damage, and ensuring the claim is handled according to policy terms and applicable law. This includes respecting legal requirements and proper interpretation of insurance statutes and conditions.

However, adjusters must not provide legal advice. Legal advice is the domain of licensed lawyers. Adjusters may explain policy terms, clarify obligations, or interpret claims procedures, but they cannot advise a claimant on legal strategy, liability, lawsuit responses, or legal rights beyond policy interpretation. Doing so breaches professional boundaries and regulatory expectations.

Therefore, the only option that isnota responsibility is D: Provide legal advice, making it the correct answer.

Hazards are conditions thatincrease the likelihood or severity of a losscaused by an insured peril. Underwriters assess hazards (physical, moral, and morale hazards) to determine whether a risk is acceptable and at what price.

If hazards make an insured perilmore likely to occur, the underwriter willincrease the rateto reflect higher expected losses. This aligns exactly with option C.

Option A is close but incorrectly states “insured event,” not “insured peril,” and is less precise.

Option B misinterprets the law of large numbers; it applies to loss predictability, not hazard listing.

Option D misunderstands rating—rates are not calculated by multiplying premium by insured value.

Thus, the correct statement isC.

To calculate premiums rated per $100 of insurance, the formula is:

Premium = (Amount of Insurance ÷ 100) × Rate

Step-by-step:

$500,000 ÷ 100 = 5,000 rating units

5,000 × $0.80 =$4,000

Thus, the annual premium for the building is$4,000, makingOption Cthe correct answer.

Option A is too low, while Options B and D do not match the rating calculation. Underwriters rely on these standardized rating methods to ensure consistent and adequate premium development.

Comprehensive Explanation (150–250 words):

When a vehicle is deemed a total loss, the insurer typically pays theactual cash value (ACV)minus thedeductible. If the insured decides to keep the salvage, thesalvage valuemust also be deducted from the settlement, because the insured retains something of monetary worth.

The formula for this situation is:

Settlement=ACV−Deductible−Salvage Value\text{Settlement} = \text{ACV} - \text{Deductible} - \text{Salvage Value}Settlement=ACV−Deductible−Salvage Value

Using Ivana’s numbers:

ACV = $17,000

Deductible = $1,500

Salvage value = $3,000

17,000−1,500−3,000=12,50017,000 - 1,500 - 3,000 = 12,50017,000−1,500−3,000=12,500

Therefore, Ivana receives$12,500, and she keeps the damaged vehicle, which she values for personal reasons.

Option B ($14,000) ignores the salvage deduction.

Option C ($15,500) ignores the deductible.

Option D ($17,000) ignores both deductible and salvage, which is not permitted.

The only correct settlement amount is$12,500.

Asurety bondis a three-party contract in which the surety guarantees the performance of a contractor (principal) for the benefit of a third party (obligee). In construction, a developer may require a contractor to post aperformance bondensuring the project will be completed as agreed. This is the classic example of suretyship.

Option A is banking, not surety.

Option B is liability insurance, not a three-party guarantee.

Option D involves marine or cargo insurance, not a performance guarantee.

Thus,Ccorrectly describes a surety situation.

When apolicyholder(the insured) cancels a policy before its natural expiry date, insurers applyshort rate cancellation. Under short rate cancellation, the insurer refunds the unearned premiumminus a penalty. This penalty is applied because early cancellation disrupts expenses already incurred by the insurer, such as acquisition and administrative costs.

By contrast:

Pro rata cancellation (A)applies when theinsurercancels the policy — this provides the insured with thefullunearned premium refund, without penalties.

Half-term (B)is not a recognized cancellation method.

Partial-term (D)is also not an insurance cancellation method.

Thus, when the insured initiates cancellation, the correct method applied isshort rate.

A claims adjuster’s primary initial responsibility is to receive, record, and gather preliminary information about a loss. This includes confirming the identity of the insured, the date and circumstances of the loss, and whether the situation appears to fall within the policy period and coverage. The adjuster also must ask probing questions to obtain the essential facts to begin an investigation. This early information is critical because it guides further steps such as contacting witnesses, arranging inspections, evaluating liability, and determining the need for expert reports.

Option A is incorrect because an adjuster cannot confirm coverage until a full review of the policy and the facts is completed. Option C is incorrect because the adjuster uses an independent adjuster’s report but is not required to “verify no errors” in a formal sense; they assess and evaluate the report’s content. Option D is unrelated to claims adjusting—premium changes are underwriting functions.

Therefore, the adjuster’s correct responsibility at the early stage is to record preliminary details and obtain further necessary information, making B the accurate answer.

Asubscription policyis used when a single insurance risk is too large for one insurer to assume alone. Multiple insurers participate in the policy, each taking a percentage of the risk. Because each insurer is directly responsible for its portion, the policy must besigned by each participating insurer, acknowledging its share of liability.

Option A, prescription, refers to legal limitation periods.

Option B, all-inclusive, is not a recognized type of policy requiring multiple insurer signatures.

Option D, subrogation, is a legal right—not a policy type.

Only thesubscription policyrequires signatures from all insurers involved, makingCcorrect.

PIPEDAis the federal Canadian privacy legislation governing how private-sector organizations—including insurance companies, brokers, and adjusters—collect, use, and disclosepersonal informationduring commercial activities. Its full and correct name is:

Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

PIPEDA sets out requirements for informed consent, accuracy, safeguarding of data, client access rights, and limitations on secondary use of personal information. Insurance operations rely heavily on personal data, so compliance is mandatory.

Options A, B, and C are fictitious and have no connection to Canadian insurance regulation or privacy law.

Thus, the correct answer isD.

In determining liability, the immediate (proximate) cause refers to the most direct, unbroken cause leading to the injury. In this sequence, the firecracker explodes in Celina’s hands immediately after she receives it from Sandra. Although Antonio initiated the chain of events and Brett contributed, their actions are more remote.

The last voluntary act that directly placed the dangerous object in the position where it caused harm was Sandra’s throw to Celina. Sandra’s action is therefore the immediate cause, even though earlier individuals may share legal responsibility in a broader causation analysis.

Option D is incorrect because Celina did not cause her own injury; she merely received the firecracker.

Option C includes Antonio and Brett, but neither was the final actor in the chain.

Therefore, the immediate cause of loss is B: Sandra.