Free Practice Questions for CompTIA SY0-701 Exam

Zero Trust is based on the principle of “never trust, always verify.” Option B is correct because access is granted only after strong identity verification, policy evaluation, and continuous monitoring. Zero Trust rejects the old perimeter assumption that users or devices inside the internal network should automatically be trusted. Access decisions should consider identity, device posture, location, sensitivity of the resource, session risk, and ongoing behavior. MFA is commonly used in Zero Trust, but option C is too narrow because Zero Trust applies beyond remote access and beyond MFA alone. Role-based limitations and periodic reviews are useful, but option D does not capture continuous verification. Option A is the opposite of Zero Trust because it assumes internal trust after initial authentication.

A third-party audit provides an independent assessment of the SaaS vendor’s security controls, compliance, and practices. This documentation helps verify that the vendor meets security standards and follows best practices.

The correct answer is If the root certificate is installed because trust errors in SSL/TLS deployments most commonly occur when the certificate chain cannot be validated back to a trusted root certificate authority. In the Security+ SY0-701 cryptography and PKI objectives, trust is established through a chain of trust, beginning with a trusted root CA, followed by any intermediate CAs, and ending with the server’s certificate.

In this scenario, the administrator has already confirmed that the certificate was issued by a legitimate CA and that the private key is valid. This eliminates common issues related to key mismatch or improper issuance. The next logical step is to verify that the system (or the client systems connecting to it) trusts the CA that issued the certificate. If the root certificate—or required intermediate certificates—are missing from the trust store, clients will flag the certificate as untrusted even though it is otherwise valid.

Option A, checking wildcard configuration, is not relevant unless the certificate is being used for multiple subdomains, which is not indicated. Option B, validating the certificate signing request, would be unnecessary because the CA successfully issued the certificate. Option D, verifying the public key, is incorrect because the public key is embedded in the certificate and would already be validated as part of successful issuance.

The SY0-701 study guide highlights that certificate trust failures are frequently caused by incomplete certificate chains, missing root or intermediate certificates, or misconfigured trust stores. Ensuring that the correct root CA certificate is installed allows systems to verify the certificate’s authenticity and establish secure communications.

In summary, when an SSL certificate is valid but not trusted, the most likely cause is a missing trusted root certificate, making option C the correct answer.

Testing the security of a building ' s alarm system falls under physical penetration testing. According to Security+ SY0-701, physical penetration tests evaluate the effectiveness of physical security controls such as locks, alarms, cameras, sensors, badge readers, and access control points. These tests simulate real-world attempts to bypass or disable physical protections.

Defensive testing (B) refers to defensive security operations, not pen testing scope. Integrated testing (C) relates to combined system evaluations but is not a standard pen testing category. Continuous testing (D) refers to ongoing automated tests, not physical alarm evaluation.

Thus, the correct answer is A: Physical.

Masking is a method to secure credit card data that involves replacing some or all of the digits with symbols, such as asterisks, dashes, or Xs, while leaving some of the original digits visible. Masking is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card, as it can prevent unauthorized access to the full card number, while still allowing identification and verification of the cardholder. Masking does not alter the original data, unlike encryption, hashing, or tokenization, which use algorithms to transform the data into different formats.

In Security+ governance terminology, the person who implements and operationalizes requirements like data retention standards on systems is typically acting as a data custodian. Data custodians are the individuals or teams responsible for the secure safekeeping and handling of information, carrying out the controls that protect data in day-to-day operations. The study guide explains that custodians do not set the business purpose for the data; instead, they are responsible for safeguarding it and enforcing the required protections when a controller/owner delegates those responsibilities .

By contrast, the data owner (or “data controller” in privacy-law terminology) is the role that determines why the data is processed and establishes expectations such as classification decisions and high-level handling requirements (which commonly include retention expectations as part of governance). Owners/controllers may delegate implementation tasks but remain accountable for decisions about the data . A data processor is usually a third-party service provider processing personal information on behalf of the controller—this does not fit the scenario because the IT administrator is an internal implementer rather than an outsourced processing entity . Finally, a privacy officer (or data protection officer) leads and coordinates organizational privacy efforts at a program level, ensuring privacy objectives are met, but they are not typically the role directly configuring enterprise applications to enforce retention standards .

This aligns with the SY0-701 governance model where policies define intent and standards define mandatory implementation requirements, while technical teams (custodians) put those requirements into practice .

 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1.

An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent themfrom exploiting or harming the system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2.

Some examples of preventive controls are:

Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device

Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system

Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees

An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or availability of the network or the system, such as:

Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software

Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption

Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes

Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms

Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network

By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions or inactions3.

References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why You Need A Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA

A full inventory of all hardware and software is essential for measuring the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, because it allows the security analyst to identify which systems are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts. Without a full inventory, the security analyst may miss some vulnerable systems or waste time and resources on irrelevant ones. Documentation of system classifications, a list of system owners and their departments, and third-party risk assessment documentation are all useful for risk management, but they are not sufficient to measure the impact of a new vulnerability. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative3

The best answer is A. To ensure data is securely destroyed when no longer needed.

During asset decommissioning, organizations must handle storage media and data according to established data retention policies. These policies define how long data must be kept and when it should be securely destroyed. Following them helps ensure that data is not kept longer than necessary and is properly sanitized or destroyed when retention requirements have been met.

This is important for:

reducing risk of unauthorized data exposure

meeting legal and regulatory obligations

preventing sensitive information from being recovered from retired assets

limiting unnecessary storage and liability

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. To make backup copies of all company data before disposing of hardwareNot all data should be backed up indefinitely. Retention policies are about keeping data only as long as required.

C. To allow employees to access old files even after the hardware is recycledThis is not the primary purpose of retention policies during decommissioning.

D. To keep all customer data available in case it is required in the futureKeeping all data forever is not a proper retention strategy and can create legal and security problems.

From the SY0-701 perspective, asset disposal and media sanitization are closely tied to retention schedules and secure destruction practices, so A is the correct answer.

 A firewall rule is a set of criteria that determines whether to allow or deny a packet to pass through the firewall. A firewall rule consists of several elements, such as the action, the protocol, the source address, the destination address, and the port number. The syntax of a firewall rule may vary depending on the type and vendor of the firewall, but the basic logic is the same. In this question, the security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from accessing the organization’s network. This means that the action should be deny, the protocol should be any (or ig for IP), the source address should be 10.1.4.9/32 (which means a single IP address), the destination address should be 0.0.0.0/0 (which means any IP address), and the port number should be any. Therefore, the correct firewall rule is:

access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0

This rule will match any packet that has the source IP address of 10.1.4.9 and drop it. The other options are incorrect because they either have the wrong action, the wrong source address, or the wrong destination address. For example, option A has the source and destination addresses reversed, which means that it will block any packet that has the destination IP address of 10.1.4.9, which is not the intended goal. Option C has the wrong action, which is permit, which means that it will allow the packet to pass through the firewall, which is also not the intended goal. Option D has the same problem as option A, with the source and destination addresses reversed.

References = Firewall Rules – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 1.2, Firewalls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501, Understanding Firewall Rules – CompTIA Network+ N10-005: 5.5, Configuring Windows Firewall – CompTIA A+ 220-1102 – 1.6.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) acts as a preventive control by actively blocking threats and a detective control by monitoring and alerting to suspicious activities on endpoints.

Scheduled downtime is a planned period of time when a system or service is unavailable for maintenance, updates, upgrades, or other changes. Scheduled downtime gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system without disrupting the normal business operations or affecting the availability of the system or service. Scheduled downtime also allows administrators to inform the users and stakeholders about the expected duration and impact of the changes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 12: Security Operations and Administration, page 579 1

The ability to automatically generate WAF (Web Application Firewall) policies during application deployment is a characteristic of Infrastructure as Code (IaC). IaC allows infrastructure components—such as firewalls, WAF policies, load balancers, and security groups—to be defined, version-controlled, and deployed programmatically.

According to Security+ SY0-701, IaC enhances DevSecOps workflows by embedding security controls directly into deployment pipelines, ensuring consistent, repeatable, and automated application protection. This reduces human error, eliminates configuration drift, and ensures that every new application instance is deployed with the correct WAF rules already in place.

IoT (B) involves connected devices.

IoC (C) refers to Indicators of Compromise.

IaaS (D) provides cloud infrastructure but does not itself automate security policy generation.

Thus, A: IaC is the correct concept enabling automated WAF policy creation.