Free Practice Questions for CompTIA SY0-701 Exam

When investigating abnormal outbound traffic originating from a specific endpoint, endpoint logs are the most appropriate first data source to review. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, endpoint logs provide detailed visibility into process execution, user actions, service creation, network connections initiated by applications, and security agent detections. This context is critical for determining which process initiated the encrypted traffic and why it is using non-standard ports.

Because the traffic is encrypted, packet captures (D) would reveal limited payload information and are more resource-intensive. Endpoint logs can quickly identify suspicious executables, command-line arguments, parent-child process relationships, and persistence mechanisms that indicate malware or command-and-control activity. Modern EDR tools rely heavily on endpoint telemetry for exactly this reason.

Application logs (A) may be useful later but are limited to specific applications. Vulnerability scans (B) identify weaknesses, not active malicious behavior.

Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes starting investigations as close to the suspected source as possible. Since the activity originates from a corporate endpoint, endpoint logs provide the fastest and most relevant confirmation of whether the traffic is malicious.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Endpoint protection systems rely on policy rules, signatures, behavioral analytics, and heuristics. When the analyst identifies the event as a false positive, this indicates the file itself was not malicious, but the endpoint protection solution incorrectly identified it as a threat. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 concepts, false positives commonly occur due to overly aggressive configuration settings, outdated rules, unrefined behavioral baselines, or incorrect threat signatures.

Zero-day vulnerabilities (B) would cause a true positive because the file contains unknown malware, not a false alert. A supply chain attack (C) would impact the vendor or update delivery, not a user download event. Incorrect file permissions (D) prevent access but do not trigger malware alerts.

Misconfigurations are identified in SY0-701 under Security Operations → Monitoring, alerting, tuning, and false positives, which emphasizes the need for refining security controls to reduce erroneous blocks. Therefore, the most likely cause of a blocked benign download is a misconfigured endpoint protection policy.

A training curriculum plan for a security awareness program should address the following factors:

The threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates. This will help the employees to understand the specific risks and challenges that their organization faces, and how to protect themselves and the organization from cyberattacks. For example, a healthcareorganization may face different threat vectors than a financial organization, such as ransomware, data breaches, or medical device hacking1.

The cadence and duration of training events. This will help the employees to retain the information and skills they learn, and to keep up with the changing security landscape. The training events should be frequent enough to reinforce the key concepts and behaviors, but not too long or too short to lose the attention or interest of the employees. For example, a security awareness program may include monthly newsletters, quarterly webinars, annual workshops, or periodic quizzes2.

A false positive is an alert that incorrectly identifies benign activity as malicious. Over time, if an alerting system generates too many false positives, security teams are likely to ignore these alerts, resulting in " alert fatigue. " This increases the risk of missing genuine threats.

True positives and true negatives are accurate and should be acted upon.

False negatives are more dangerous because they fail to identify real threats, but they are not " ignored " since they do not trigger alerts​​.

The scenario indicates that a user downloaded an unofficial patch, applied it, and afterward system files changed—detected by FIM. This strongly suggests the presence of a rootkit, which is designed to deeply embed itself into the operating system, altering core system files, modifying kernels, and hiding its presence.

Rootkits commonly replace or modify OS-level files, which results in changed file hashes—exactly what FIM is detecting. Rootkits often gain privileged, persistent control and are frequently disguised as legitimate updates or patches.

A logic bomb (A) is triggered by an event but does not typically modify OS files. A keylogger (B) captures keystrokes but doesn’t modify system files broadly. Ransomware (C) encrypts files, not silently alters system components.

Thus, the best match is D: Rootkit.

Input sanitization is a critical security measure to prevent SQL injection attacks, which occur when an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in a website ' s input fields to execute malicious SQL code. By properly sanitizing and validating all user inputs, developers can prevent malicious code from being executed, thereby securing the website against such attacks.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common vulnerability mitigation strategies​​.

A site survey is the formal assessment used to determine the optimal number and placement of wireless access points (APs). According to Security+ SY0-701, wireless site surveys evaluate factors such as building layout, RF interference, wall material density, antenna propagation, and signal overlap. The goal is to ensure full wireless coverage while minimizing the number of APs needed, maximizing performance, and reducing dead zones.

During a site survey, technicians analyze:

Signal strength patterns

Interference sources (microwaves, metal shelving, wiring, etc.)

Required coverage zones

Capacity needs (number of users, devices)

Although heat maps (C) visually represent wireless signal distribution, they are a result of a site survey, not the process itself. WPA3 (B) is a security protocol unrelated to determining coverage. A signal locator (A) is not an enterprise-grade planning tool.

Therefore, the correct answer is D: Site survey.

Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, andantivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.

Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise in a network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise (IOCs) to appear. Threat hunting can help identify new tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by malicious actors, as well as uncover hidden or stealthy threats that may have evaded detection by security tools. Threat hunting requires a combination of skills, tools, and methodologies, such as hypothesis generation, data collection and analysis, threat intelligence, and incident response. Threat hunting can also help improve the security posture of an organization by providing feedback and recommendations for security improvements. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1: Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators of malicious activity. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 4: Threat Detection and Response, page 153. Threat Hunting – SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1, Video 3:18. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 3.

Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one. The employee entered the log-in information, but received a “page not found” error message. This indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and the attacker may have captured the employee’s credentials for the payment website. References = Other Social Engineering Attacks – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack … - NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

SAE, or Simultaneous Authentication of Equals, is the correct answer. SAE is used with WPA3- Personal and replaces the weaker pre-shared key exchange approach used in earlier WPA versions. Its major security benefit is resistance to offline dictionary and brute-force attacks after over-the-air capture. With older WPA/WPA2-PSK handshakes, an attacker could capture the handshake and repeatedly test guessed passwords offline. SAE changes the authentication exchange so captured traffic is not useful in the same way for mass offline guessing. WIPS can detect or prevent wireless intrusions, but it does not directly strengthen the password authentication exchange. SSO is an identity convenience mechanism, and WPS is a risky setup feature historically associated with PIN brute-force weaknesses.

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Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the financial losses and liabilities that result from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service, phishing, or malware. Cyber insurance can help a company recover from the costs of restoring data, repairing systems, paying ransoms, compensating customers, or facing legal actions. Cyber insurance is one of the possible strategies that a company can use to address the items listed on the risk register. A riskregister is a document that records the identified risks, their probability, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project or an organization. The four common risk mitigation strategies are:

Accept: The company acknowledges the risk and decides to accept the consequences without taking any action to reduce or eliminate the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high.

Transfer: The company transfers the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is high or the company lacks the resources or expertise to handle the risk.

Mitigate: The company implements controls or measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is moderate or the cost of mitigation is reasonable.

Avoid: The company eliminates the risk by changing the scope, plan, or design of the project or the organization. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is unacceptable or the cost of mitigation is too high.

By purchasing cyber insurance, the company is transferring the risk to the insurance company, which will cover the financial losses and liabilities in case of a cyberattack. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Transfer. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 377. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.1: Risk Management, video: Risk Mitigation Strategies (5:37).