Nail the CompTIA 220-1202: A+ Core 2 Strategy (2026)

Authenticator apps, such as Google Authenticator or Microsoft Authenticator, can be configured to sendpush notificationsto users for approval when logging in. This is a form of multi-factor authentication.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Push-based two-factor authentication uses an authenticator app to send a notification to a mobile device. The user must approve the login attempt in real time, ensuring the request is valid.”

The correct answers are E. Set the view extensions to " on " and F. Check the box to view hidden files, because folders located in the root directory are often hidden or protected system folders by default in Windows operating systems. Windows hides certain files and folders to prevent accidental modification or deletion, especially those critical to system functionality.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, File Explorer includes view options that control whether hidden files, protected operating system files, and file extensions are visible. If these options are disabled, users will not see many system-level folders, even when browsing the root of the drive (such as C:\).

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that enabling “Show hidden files, folders, and drives” allows technicians to view directories that are normally concealed, such as configuration or application folders. Additionally, turning on file name extensions helps identify system folders and files more accurately, especially when troubleshooting or guiding users remotely.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that simply opening File Explorer or adjusting display resolution does not affect file visibility. The correct fix is to modify File Explorer view settings, specifically enabling hidden items and file extensions.

Therefore, enabling hidden files and file extensions is required, making E and F the correct answers.

Because the requirement is defined by a global security policy , the key question is whether the endpoint is actually receiving and applying the correct Group Policy Object (GPO) settings for screensaver timeout and enforcement. The best command to investigate applied policy is gpresult , which produces the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information. Quentin Docter explains: “The gpresult command is used to show the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) report/values for a remote user and computer,” and it helps determine “which settings apply” when policies can be set at the local workstation, domain, user, and computer levels. He notes the /r switch provides a summary and /z gives detailed, “super-verbosity” output showing exact settings being applied.

The All-in-One guide similarly states gpresult gives “a quick overview of all security policies applied to a single user or computer,” which is precisely what you need when a policy-driven screensaver setting isn’t behaving as expected. msinfo32 shows system info, sfc repairs corrupted files, and whoami shows identity—none confirm applied GPO settings like gpresult.

The correct answer is B. Task Manager, because Task Manager allows technicians to view, manage, and terminate running processes, including those that are frozen or unresponsive. If an application process is already running but not responding, launching it again will fail until the existing process is stopped.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Task Manager is the primary Windows tool for troubleshooting application hangs, excessive resource usage, and nonresponsive programs. Technicians can end the task and relaunch the application cleanly.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Resource Monitor provides detailed performance metrics but is not optimized for quickly terminating frozen applications. Event Viewer logs errors but does not resolve active process issues.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that Registry Editor should never be used for live application troubleshooting due to the risk of system instability.

Because the issue involves an unresponsive background process, Task Manager is the fastest and safest tool to resolve the problem, making B the correct answer.

An incident report documents key details such as the cause of the outage, steps taken to resolve it, and measures to prevent recurrence. It is a post-mortem analysis often shared with stakeholders to improve future response.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“An incident report provides a summary of an event that disrupted normal operations and includes a timeline of what occurred, how the issue was diagnosed and fixed, and who was involved in the resolution”.

This is reaffirmed in Travis Everett’s All-in-One Guide:

“Documentation after an incident helps technical teams and management review the situation and learn from it. This is formalized in an incident report”.

Anincident reportsummarizes what happened during an outage, the timeline, the actions taken, and the resolution, which is exactly what management typically requests post-incident.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Incident reports document the events of an IT issue or outage, including detection, response, and resolution. They are crucial for post-incident review and management accountability.”

Virtualization settings are typically found within the BIOS/UEFI firmware configuration. To prevent unauthorized users from changing these settings, the technician should set a BIOS password. This ensures only administrators with the password can access or modify BIOS settings, including virtualization support.

B. The guest account is a user-level feature in Windows and doesn’t control BIOS access.

C. A screen lock prevents casual access to the desktop but doesn’t protect firmware settings.

D. AutoRun controls how media and devices behave when inserted — unrelated to BIOS security.

The best option is to create a lower-security network exclusively for the console. Many retro or legacy gaming consoles only support older Wi-Fi security standards such as WPA or even WEP, and they cannot connect to modern WPA2 or WPA3 networks. Downgrading the entire primary network would significantly weaken overall security, which is not recommended in any environment.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that legacy devices often lack firmware support for modern encryption standards and should be isolated rather than integrated directly into secure networks. Creating a separate SSID with reduced security limits exposure while still allowing connectivity for the unsupported device.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that lowering security settings on a primary router—even temporarily—introduces unnecessary risk. Switching encryption modes back and forth can also cause configuration instability and expose the network during the downgrade window.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further reinforces the concept of network segmentation as a best practice. By creating a dedicated network for legacy or insecure devices, administrators reduce the attack surface and prevent lateral movement to sensitive systems.

Using a wired Ethernet adapter may not be supported by the console, and adding an older router introduces unmanaged vulnerabilities. Therefore, isolating the console on a separate, lower-security wireless network is the safest and most practical solution.

If uploading fails only offsite,mobile data limits or restrictionsare the likely cause. Data caps or network management can interfere with uploads.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“When mobile users experience network issues, always check if the device has reached a data cap or roaming restriction.”