Free Practice Questions for CompTIA 220-1202 Exam

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If the system fails to boot after removing the USB installation media, it often means the BIOS is not pointing to the correct boot device. This typically involves an issue with the BIOS settings—such as UEFI being disabled when the OS was installed in UEFI mode.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guideby Travis Everett:

“One of the most common post-installation issues is failing to configure the boot mode correctly in BIOS. If an OS is installed in UEFI mode, the UEFI boot must be enabled, otherwise the system won’t detect the bootloader.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

These symptoms strongly indicatemalware infectionor a malicious app running in the background. The first action should be torun a malware scanto identify and remove malicious components.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“If a mobile device is overheating and the battery drains rapidly after installing an app, this could point to malware. Begin by scanning the device with a mobile anti-malware application.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An " OS Not Found " error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn ' t contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system’s firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It ' s possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.

A. Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.

B. Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data—this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.

D. Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.

Open Ethernet ports in a public-facing area create a direct, high-trust entry point into the internal network. The most efficient fix is to remove that exposure by disabling the lobby ports and moving untrusted users to a segmented guest network. Quentin Docter explains why disabling unused/unauthorized access points matters: “Ports on a switch, router, or firewall not in use present an open door for an attacker to enter and should be disabled or disconnected.” That directly supports disabling lobby switch ports that shouldn’t be available to external users.

He also describes guest network isolation: guests “never need to connect to the organization’s servers and internal systems,” so a guest SSID should be created that “isolates guest traffic from production traffic.” This is exactly what option B accomplishes: it prevents contractors from gaining internal wired access while still providing Internet access through a controlled guest network.

WPA3 (A) only improves Wi-Fi encryption; it doesn’t stop wired port access. Monitoring traffic (C) is reactive. Signage (D) is weak administrative control compared to disabling the ports.

MDM hardening often includes enforcing stronger authentication on mobile devices. The phrase “unique to each user” points to something inherent to the individual— biometrics —rather than something the user knows (password/pattern) or something they have (PIV/smart card). Quentin Docter explains: “ Biometric devices use physical characteristics to identify the user. This type of authentication is considered something that you are ,” and lists common implementations including “ fingerprint… scanners .” This exactly matches a fingerprint, which is unique per person and commonly enforced via device policies in MDM environments.

Docter also notes mobile devices increasingly implement biometrics for access control, specifically citing “ fingerprint access control ” adopted by manufacturers. A drawn pattern and a password are knowledge factors and can be shared/observed, while a PIV card is a possession factor (something you have) and can be lost or loaned. Because the question specifies a hardening technique “unique to each user,” the best match is the biometric factor: fingerprint (B) .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an iOS device approaches full storage capacity, performance can be significantly impacted. iOS requires a buffer of free space to perform background processes efficiently.

From theAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“iOS devices need several gigabytes of free space to maintain optimal performance. Near-full storage can cause sluggish operation and failures in updates or background tasks.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An in-place upgrade is the fastest and most efficient way to upgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 11 while keeping all user data, applications, and settings intact. This method is often used when the hardware meets Windows 11 requirements and no system reconfiguration is necessary.

A. gpupdate is used to refresh Group Policy settings — unrelated to OS upgrades.

B. Image deployment typically replaces the current OS and may not retain user data unless specifically customized.

C. A clean install requires formatting the drive and starting fresh, which removes all data.

The correct answer is D. Chain of custody process , because chain of custody ensures that evidence collected during an incident response is tracked, preserved, and legally defensible . It documents who collected the evidence, when it was collected, how it was stored, and who accessed it throughout the investigation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , chain of custody is essential when evidence may be used in disciplinary actions, audits, or legal proceedings. Any gap in documentation can render evidence inadmissible.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that chain of custody provides accountability and prevents claims of evidence tampering. Each transfer of evidence must be logged and verified.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that while order of volatility determines the sequence of data collection, it does not track ownership or handling. Data integrity best practices ensure evidence is not altered, but they do not provide a record of custody.

Because the question focuses on handling and accountability , the required process is chain of custody , making D the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. Check for malicious applications , because excessive data usage, device overheating, and rapid battery drain are classic indicators of mobile malware or spyware running in the background.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , malicious applications can continuously transmit data, mine cryptocurrency, or monitor user activity, all of which cause increased network usage and battery consumption—even when the device appears idle.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that the first step in mobile troubleshooting is identifying whether unauthorized or malicious apps are present. Reviewing installed applications and running a mobile security scan can quickly confirm the root cause.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual explains that disabling networks or enabling airplane mode only masks symptoms temporarily and does not remove malware. Factory resets are effective but should be used after confirming malware or if other remediation steps fail.

Because the symptoms strongly suggest malicious background activity , the most appropriate first action is to check for malicious applications , making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thefirst stepin troubleshooting degraded mobile performance is typically arestart. This clears RAM and stops background processes that might be causing issues.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Before taking invasive measures like a factory reset, always restart the device. A reboot clears temporary files and can significantly improve responsiveness.”