Free Practice Questions for CIMA F3 Exam

Target earnings (after tax) with 5% growth:

5.0×1.05=5.25 million5.0 \times 1.05 = 5.25 \text{ million}5.0×1.05=5.25 million

Let required operating profit (PBIT) be XXX.

Interest on bond = 7% × 1m = 0.07m

Profit before tax = X−0.07X - 0.07X−0.07

Tax = 30%, so profit after tax:

Earnings=(X−0.07)×(1−0.30)=0.70(X−0.07)\text{Earnings} = (X - 0.07) \times (1 - 0.30) = 0.70(X - 0.07)Earnings=(X−0.07)×(1−0.30)=0.70(X−0.07)

Set equal to earnings target:

0.70(X−0.07)=5.250.70(X - 0.07) = 5.250.70(X−0.07)=5.25 X−0.07=5.250.70=7.50X - 0.07 = \frac{5.25}{0.70} = 7.50X−0.07=0.705.25​=7.50 X=7.50+0.07=7.57 millionX = 7.50 + 0.07 = 7.57 \text{ million}X=7.50+0.07=7.57 million

So the minimum required operating profit is $7.57m (C).

B. Using present value of earnings (or free cash flows) is more appropriate when valuing a controlling interest, because the acquirer can change the dividend policy. ✅

C. A 5% historical dividend growth rate may not reflect future growth – assuming it will continue indefinitely is a big weakness. ✅

D. The industry average beta may not reflect Company B’s specific financial (gearing) risk; it should ideally be adjusted to reflect B’s capital structure. ✅

The others:

A is incorrect – you should generally use the target’s cost of equity (or project-specific) not Company A’s.

E is incorrect – unlisted companies can use CAPM via proxy/industry betas.

PBIT = $1.1m

Debt = $2m at 5% → interest = $0.1m

Profit before tax = 1.1 – 0.1 = $1.0m

Tax at 20% = 0.2m → Earnings after tax = $0.8m

Earnings yield = Earnings ÷ Market value of equity = 10%:

0.8=0.10×MV⇒MV=0.80.10=$8m0.8 = 0.10 \times \text{MV} \Rightarrow \text{MV} = \frac{0.8}{0.10} = \$8\text{m}0.8=0.10×MV⇒MV=0.100.8​=$8m

Shares in issue = 4m → share price:

Price=84=$2.00\text{Price} = \frac{8}{4} = \$2.00Price=48​=$2.00

Answer: C: $2.00

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation (Based on CIMA F3: Financial Strategy Principles)

In CIMA F3, the characteristics of fixed–income securities such as bonds are covered extensively under Financial Instruments, Cost of Capital, and Debt Finance. A key concept taught is that some bond features are contractually fixed for the entire life of the bond, whereas others fluctuate according to market dynamics.

A fixed-rate bond is one where the coupon rate remains the same throughout the bond’s life. According to F3 learning materials, the coupon rate is established at issuance and does not change, regardless of interest rate movements in the market. Therefore, the coupon rate is fixed (A is correct).

The nominal value (also called par value or face value) is another element explicitly stated in debt contracts. The nominal value is the base amount upon which coupon interest is calculated, and it does not fluctuate over the life of the bond. It is only repaid at maturity. Thus, nominal value remains unchanged (D is correct).

Furthermore, the amount payable on maturity is predetermined in the bond indenture and is equal to the nominal (par) value unless the bond is a special type like a convertible or index-linked bond. Standard fixed-rate corporate bonds repay par value at maturity, so this amount does not change. Therefore, the redemption amount remains constant (E is correct).

In contrast, the yield varies with changes in market interest rates and investor demand. Higher market rates reduce bond prices and increase yields, and vice versa. Therefore, yield is not constant. Likewise, market value also fluctuates due to interest rate changes, risk perceptions, and market expectations. Hence, both (B) and (C) are incorrect.

In CIMA F3, equity valuation using P/E multiples is based on earnings available to ordinary shareholders (i.e. profit after interest and tax). The syllabus emphasises that when valuing a potential takeover target, you should (1) derive maintainable post-tax earnings and then (2) apply a P/E multiple that reflects prices actually paid in comparable acquisitions, not just average stock-market multiples.

Calculate maintainable earnings:

Profit before interest and tax (PBIT) = $5m

Less interest on 10% bonds: 10% × $10m = $1m

Profit before tax = $4m

Tax at 20% = $0.8m

Earnings for equity = $3.2m

Select the appropriate P/E multiple:

F3 explains that “takeover P/Es” are usually higher than sector trading P/Es, reflecting the control premium. Here we have:

Overall market P/E = 20

Retail sector P/E = 10

Recent retail takeovers P/E = 13

For a takeover valuation we use the 13× multiple from recent sector takeovers.

Compute equity value:

Equity value=3.2m×13=41.6m\text{Equity value} = 3.2\text{m} \times 13 = 41.6\text{m}Equity value=3.2m×13=41.6m

Debt’s market value (90% of $10m) is not added here because the P/E method already gives the equity value.

So, a reasonable expected equity value in a takeover is $41.6 million.

In CIMA F3, capital structure choice affects tax, risk and shareholder expectations. Debt interest is tax-deductible whereas dividends are not, so using more debt reduces taxable profit. Therefore statement A (“no impact on tax”) is false. Retained earnings are not “free”: shareholders could have taken that cash and invested elsewhere, so the cost of retained earnings equals the cost of equity – B is false.

As gearing rises, equity becomes riskier because fixed interest must be paid before any earnings go to shareholders. Under Modigliani–Miller with or without tax, this raises the cost of equity, so D is true. Replacing debt with equity reduces the probability of default and so reduces overall financial risk, making E true.

Issuing more equity increases the number of shares; investors will expect dividends on those shares in future, so total dividend outflows are likely to rise even if DPS stays the same. This added distribution pressure makes F true. C (“debt is always preferable”) is rejected in F3 because of higher financial risk and potential increase in WACC beyond an optimal gearing level.

CIMA F3 links the cost of debt to the tax shield created by the tax deductibility of interest. The effective cost of servicing debt to a company is therefore the post-tax cost of debt, commonly expressed as kd(1−T)k_d(1-T)kd​(1−T). This makes statement C correct: when evaluating financing decisions and WACC, the company benefits from interest tax relief, so the relevant servicing cost is after tax. Statement A is also treated as correct in the standard F3 exam context: zero-coupon debt pays no periodic coupon interest, so there are no regular interest payments generating the conventional annual tax-deductible interest expense and therefore the familiar tax-shield effect on “interest payments” is not obtained in the same way (i.e., the typical coupon-based shield is eliminated). Statement B is incorrect because the size of the tax shield depends on the tax rate; if corporation tax changes, the value of the tax relief changes. Statement D is incorrect because if corporation tax rates rise, the tax shield from deductible interest would increase, not reduce (a higher tax rate increases the tax saving per dollar of interest). Hence the two correct statements are A and C.

Competition authorities are mainly concerned with market power and abuse of dominance.

Proposing to increase prices significantly on routes where no other airlines operate (i.e. monopoly routes) is a classic competition concern → C.

Reducing destinations (A), selective disclosure to shareholders (B), or redundancies (D) are governance, disclosure, or employment issues, not the core focus of competition law.

 A – Correct definition of natural capital under .

 C – States the primary purpose correctly: explaining value creation over time to providers of financial capital.

 D – Sustainability information is a key component of an integrated report.