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What is the MOST effective way to begin a risk assessment?

A.

Reviewing the policy, objectives, mandate, and commitment to manage risk

B.

Learning the organization's ability to accept and/or manage risks

C.

Identifying the resources available to manage risks within the organization

D.

Identifying the nature of the risks faced by the organization

Which of the following methods is most often used to manage inventory planning variability across the supply chain?

A.

Buffer management

B.

Safety lead time

C.

Risk pooling

D.

Risk categorization

A manufacturer begins production of an item when a customer order is placed. This is an example of a(n):

A.

Assemble-to-order (ATO) environment

B.

Make-to-stock (MTS) environment

C.

Pull system

D.

Push system

Which of the following security features is utilized to validate both user credentials and the health of the client device on a network?

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Network Access Control (NAC)

In a large organization, the average time for a new user to receive access is seven days. Which of the following is the BEST enabler to shorten this time?

A.

Implement a self-service password management capability

B.

Increase system administration personnel

C.

Implement an automated provisioning tool

D.

Increase authorization workflow steps

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

Fishbone diagrams would help a service organization determine:

A.

the proper level of service for a customer segment.

B.

the source of a quality-of-service issue.

C.

differences in the performance of employees.

D.

the decomposition of customer return rates with seasonality.

If fixed costs are §200,000 and 20,000 units are produced, a unit's fixed cost is §10. This is an example of:

A.

variable costing.

B.

activity-based costing (ABC).

C.

absorption costing.

D.

overhead costing.

Corporate fraud has historically been difficult to detect. Which of the following methods has been the MOST helpful in unmasking embezzlement?

A.

Accidental discovery

B.

Management review

C.

Anonymous tip lines

D.

Internal audit

A product manager wishes to store sensitive development data using a cloud storage vendor while maintaining exclusive control over passwords and encryption credentials. What is the BEST method for meeting these requirements?

A.

Local self-encryption with passwords managed by a local password manager

B.

Client-side encryption keys and passwords generated dynamically during cloud access sessions

C.

Zero-knowledge encryption keys provided by the cloud storage vendor

D.

Passwords generated by a local password manager during cloud access sessions and encrypted in transit

Which of the following is the MOST significant flaw when using Federated Identity Management (FIM)?

A.

The initial cost of the setup is prohibitively high for small business.

B.

The token stored by the Identity Provider (IdP) may need to be renewed.

C.

The token generated by the Identity Provider (IdP) may be corrupted.

D.

The participating members in a federation may not adhere to the same rules of governance.

An organization is preparing for a natural disaster, and management is creating a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). What is the BEST input for prioritizing the restoration of vital Information Technology (IT) services?

A.

By priority as defined by the critical assets list

B.

The latest Continuity Of Operations Plan (COOP)

C.

Senior management assessment and approval

D.

The latest Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and is tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

A.

An increase in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

B.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

A champion is assigned to lead a threat modeling exercise. Which of the following will be the FIRST thing to consider?

A.

Using an automated tool to construct system models

B.

Outlining a detailed threat modeling procedure

C.

Scheduling weekly threat modeling sessions

D.

Ensuring the right stakeholder are involved