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A Zero Trust policy enablement and subsequent application connection should always be permanent.

A.

True

B.

False

What needs to be known to help inform policy decision enforcement?

A.

The time of day.

B.

The location and time zone of the initiator.

C.

Full context of the user, application, device posture, and related conditions.

D.

The verified identity of the initiator.

The Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange has:

A.

Inspection controls only in limited core sites.

B.

Locations in few high-traffic geographic regions.

C.

Scalable inspection solutions at 150+ public locations and locally in private locations.

D.

Expanded its scope to try to provide the proof for Fermat’s Last Theorem.

If an enterprise is protecting its services at a network level, such as using firewalls, what happens to that protection when a user leaves the network? (Select 2)

A.

The initiator will not have access to the service.

B.

Network access is maintained via TCP keepalive messages.

C.

Users will continue to be able to access services via the internet.

D.

A path from initiator to the network must be put in place, for example VPN.

Identity is a binary decision, not to be revisited. Once a decision is made about who, what, and where, that is final for at least 48 hours.

A.

True

B.

False

What types of attributes can be used to assess whether access is risky? (Select 2)

A.

The endpoint operating system of the initiator.

B.

An analysis of device posture to examine attributes such as domain joined status, a certificate, whether the device has AV/EDR installed, and whether the device is running disk encryption.

C.

Leveraging APIs available on the Layer 3 devices on the network to scan for malicious services or hosts in the environment.

D.

Seeing patterns in user behavior around things such as blocked malware downloads and blocked access to phishing sites.

The second part of a Zero Trust architecture after verifying identity and context is:

A.

Controlling content and access.

B.

Re-checking the SAML assertion.

C.

Enforcing policy.

D.

Microsegmentation.

In a Zero Trust architecture, how is the connection to an application provided?

A.

Over any network with per-access control.

B.

By establishing a full network-layer connection.

C.

Through a virtual security appliance stack.

D.

Via secure TLS connections with out-of-band inspection for advanced threats.

By definition, Zero Trust connections are:

A.

Independent of any network for control or trust.

B.

Highly dependent on the network type, including whether that network is IPv4 or IPv6.

C.

Based purely on a network appliance, constrained by how much CPU may be available.

D.

Hairpinned through service chaining by an SD-WAN appliance.

A Zero Trust solution must account for an enterprise’s risk tolerance via:

A.

Industry analyst firms such as Gartner and Forrester should provide the best guidance.

B.

A Zero Trust certification process, whereby every employee at the company is Zero Trust certified.

C.

A dynamic risk score, which feeds into a decision engine that determines whether access should be granted.

D.

The enterprise security architecture team should create a standard formula to calculate a fixed risk score for each unique initiator based on previous security incidents.