Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of questionnaires in third party risk assessments?
The total number of questions included in the questionnaire assigns the risk tier
Questionnaires are optional since reliance on contract terms is a sufficient control
Assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated
All topic areas included in the questionnaire require validation during the assessment
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
Questionnaires are one of the most common and effective tools for conducting third party risk assessments. They help organizations gather information about the security and compliance practices of their vendors and service providers, as well as identify any gaps or weaknesses that may pose a risk to the organization. However, not all questionnaires are created equal. Depending on the nature and scope of the third party relationship, different types and levels of questions may be required to adequately assess the risk. Therefore, it is important to configure the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated12.
The risk rating of a third party is determined by various factors, such as the criticality of the service they provide, the sensitivity of the data they handle, the regulatory requirements they must comply with, and the potential impact of a breach or disruption on the organization. The higher the risk rating, the more detailed and comprehensive the questionnaire should be. For example, a high-risk third party that processes personal or financial data may require a questionnaire that covers multiple domains of security and privacy, such as data protection, encryption, access control, incident response, and audit. A low-risk third party that provides a non-critical service or does not handle sensitive data may require a questionnaire that covers only the basic security controls, such as firewall, antivirus, and password policy12.
The type of service that a third party provides also influences the configuration of the questionnaire. Different services may have different security and compliance standards and best practices that need to be addressed. For example, a third party that provides cloud-based services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as cloud security architecture, data residency, service level agreements, and disaster recovery. A third party that provides software development services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as software development life cycle, code review, testing, and vulnerability management12.
By configuring the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated, organizations can ensure that they ask the right questions to the right third parties, and obtain relevant and meaningful information to support their risk management decisions. Therefore, the statement that assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated is TRUE12. References: 1: How to Use SIG Questionnaires for Better Third-Party Risk Management 2: Third-party risk assessment questionnaires - KPMG India
Which set of procedures is typically NOT addressed within data privacy policies?
Procedures to limit access and disclosure of personal information to third parties
Procedures for handling data access requests from individuals
Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management
Procedures for incident reporting and notification
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
Data privacy policies are documents that outline how an organization collects, uses, stores, shares, and protects personal information from its customers, employees, partners, and other stakeholders1. Data privacy policies should address the following key elements2:
The purpose and scope of data collection and processing
The legal basis and consent mechanism for data processing
The types and categories of personal data collected and processed
The data retention and deletion policies and practices
The data security and encryption measures and standards
The data sharing and disclosure practices and procedures, including the use of third parties and cross-border transfers
The data access, correction, and deletion rights and requests of individuals
The data breach and incident response and notification procedures and responsibilities
The data protection officer and contact details
The data privacy policy review and update process and frequency
Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management are typically not addressed within data privacy policies, as they are more related to the technical and operational aspects of data security and access control. Identity access management (IAM) is a framework of policies, processes, and technologies that enable an organization to manage and verify the identities and access rights of its users and devices3. IAM configuration settings determine how users and devices are authenticated, authorized, and audited when accessing data and resources. IAM configuration settings should be aligned with the data privacy policies and principles, but they are not part of the data privacy policies themselves. IAM configuration settings should be documented and maintained separately from data privacy policies, and should be reviewed and updated regularly to ensure compliance and security. References: 1: What is a Data Privacy Policy? | OneTrust 2: Privacy Policy Checklist: What to Include in Your Privacy Policy 3: What is identity and access management? | IBM : [Identity and Access Management Configuration Settings] : [Why data privacy and third-party risk teams need to work … - OneTrust] : [Privacy Risk Management - ISACA] : [What Every Chief Privacy Officer Should Know About Third-Party Risk …]
Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?
Configuration
Log retention
Approvals
Testing
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
In patch management, testing is the most crucial factor when conducting post-cybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications. Proper testing of patches before deployment ensures that they effectively address vulnerabilities without introducing new issues or incompatibilities that could impact system functionality or security. Testing allows organizations to verify that the patch resolves the identified security issue without adversely affecting the system or application's performance. It also helps in identifying potential conflicts with existing configurations or dependencies. Effective testing strategies include regression testing, performance testing, and security testing to ensure comprehensive validation of the patch's effectiveness and safety before widespread deployment. This approach aligns with best practices in patch management, emphasizing the importance of thorough testing to mitigate the risk of unintended consequences and ensure the continued security and stability of systems and applications.
References:
Industry standards such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) highlight the importance of a systematic approach to managing patches, including the role of testing in assessing the effectiveness and impact of patches.
Resources like "Patch Management Best Practices" from the Center for Internet Security (CIS) provide guidance on developing and implementing a patch management program that includes rigorous testing procedures to ensure patches are safely and effectively applied.
Which statement is TRUE regarding the onboarding process far new hires?
New employees and contractors should not be on-boarded until the results of applicant screening are approved
it is not necessary to have employees, contractors, and third party users sign confidentiality or non-disclosure agreements
All job roles should require employees to sign non-compete agreements
New employees and contactors can opt-out of having to attend security and privacy awareness training if they hold existing certifications
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
The onboarding process for new hires is a key part of the third-party risk management program, as it ensures that the right people are hired and trained to perform their roles effectively and securely. One of the best practices for onboarding new hires is to conduct applicant screening, which may include background checks, reference checks, verification of credentials, and assessment of skills and competencies. Applicant screening helps to identify and mitigate potential risks such as fraud, theft, corruption, or data breaches that may arise from hiring unqualified, dishonest, or malicious individuals. Therefore, it is important to wait for the results of applicant screening before onboarding new employees and contractors, as this can prevent costly and damaging incidents in the future.
The other statements are false regarding the onboarding process for new hires. It is necessary to have employees, contractors, and third-party users sign confidentiality or non-disclosure agreements, as this protects the company’s sensitive information and intellectual property from unauthorized disclosure or misuse. Non-compete agreements may not be required for all job roles, as they may limit the employee’s ability to work for other companies or in the same industry after leaving the current employer. They may also be subject to legal challenges depending on the jurisdiction and the scope of the agreement. Security and privacy awareness training is essential for all new employees and contractors, regardless of their existing certifications, as it educates them on the company’s policies, procedures, and standards for protecting data and systems from cyber threats. It also helps to foster a culture of security and compliance within the organization. References:
5 Steps to Effective Third-Party Onboarding
Using a third-party onboarding tool to address new challenges in third-party risk
Onboarding and terminating third parties
CTPRP Job Guide
When conducting an assessment of a third party's physical security controls, which of the following represents the innermost layer in a ‘Defense in Depth’ model?
Public internal
Restricted entry
Private internal
Public external
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
In the ‘Defense in Depth’ security model, the innermost layer typically focuses on protecting the most sensitive and critical assets, which are often categorized as 'Private internal'. This layer includes security controls and measures that are designed to safeguard the core, confidential aspects of an organization's infrastructure and data. It encompasses controls such as access controls, encryption, and monitoring of sensitive systems and data to prevent unauthorized access and ensure data integrity and confidentiality. The 'Private internal' layer is crucial for maintaining the security of critical information and systems that are essential to the organization's operations and could have the most significant impact if compromised. Implementing robust security measures at this layer is vital for mitigating risks associated with physical access to critical infrastructure and sensitive information.
References:
Security frameworks and standards, including NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations) and the SANS Institute's guidelines on implementing 'Defense in Depth', provide detailed recommendations on securing the innermost layers of an organization's information systems.
Publications such as "Physical Security Principles" by ASIS International offer insights into best practices for securing the private internal layer, including access control systems, surveillance, and intrusion detection mechanisms.
Data loss prevention in endpoint security is the strategy for:
Assuring there are adequate data backups in the event of a disaster
Preventing exfiltration of confidential information by users who access company systems
Enabling high-availability to prevent data transactions from loss
Preventing malware from entering secure systems used for processing confidential information
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, data loss prevention (DLP) is a strategy for preventing the unauthorized disclosure, transfer, or misuse of sensitive data, such as personally identifiable information (PII), personal health information (PHI), or intellectual property (IP)1. Endpoint security is a component of DLP that focuses on protecting the devices (such as laptops, tablets, or smartphones) that access and store sensitive data from internal or external threats2. Therefore, data loss prevention in endpoint security is the strategy for preventing exfiltration of confidential information by users who access company systems, as this could result in data breaches, regulatory fines, reputational damage, or competitive disadvantage3.
The other options are not the best descriptions of data loss prevention in endpoint security, as they either relate to different aspects of data protection or security, or do not address the specific goal of preventing data exfiltration. Data backups are a strategy for ensuring data recovery in the event of a disaster, but they do not prevent data loss or leakage from unauthorized access or transfer. High-availability is a strategy for ensuring data availability and continuity, but it does not prevent data loss or leakage from malicious or accidental actions. Malware prevention is a strategy for ensuring data integrity and confidentiality, but it does not prevent data loss or leakage from legitimate users who may misuse or overshare data.
References:
1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 25
2: What is Endpoint Security? | McAfee
3: What is data loss prevention (DLP)? | Microsoft Security
[4]: Data Backup vs. Data Recovery: What’s the Difference? | Carbonite
[5]: What is High Availability? | IBM
[6]: What is Malware? | Norton
Which statement is FALSE regarding problem or issue management?
Problems or issues are the root cause of an actual or potential incident
Problem or issue management involves managing workarounds or known errors
Problems or issues typically lead to systemic failures
Problem or issue management may reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM), problems or issues do not inherently lead to systemic failures but are indicative of underlying faults within processes or systems that could potentially result in incidents. Problem or issue management is a critical component of TPRM, focusing on identifying, classifying, and managing the root causes of incidents to prevent their recurrence and mitigate their impact. Effective problem management involves not just managing workarounds or known errors, but also implementing permanent fixes to eliminate the root causes of problems. By addressing the underlying issues, organizations can enhance their operational resilience and reduce the likelihood and impact of future incidents. This approach aligns with best practices in TPRM, emphasizing proactive risk identification, assessment, and mitigation to safeguard against potential disruptions in the supply chain and third-party ecosystems.
References:
Best practices in TPRM suggest a structured approach to problem and issue management, including identification, assessment, prioritization, and resolution of root causes, as outlined in frameworks such as ISO 31000 (Risk Management) and NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations).
Learning resources such as the "Third Party Risk Management Program Playbook" from Shared Assessments and the "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" from ISACA provide comprehensive guidelines on implementing effective problem and issue management processes within a TPRM program.