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Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

A.

DNS Security

B.

URL Filtering

C.

WildFire

D.

Threat Prevention

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing