Free Practice Questions for PECB ISO-45001-Lead-Auditor Exam

ISO 45001 Clause 7.2 Competence requires the organization to:

determine the necessary competence of workers that affect or can affect OH and S performance;

ensure workers are competent, including the ability to identify hazards;

where applicable, take actions to acquire and maintain competence and evaluate the effectiveness of those actions; and

retain appropriate documented information as evidence of competence.

Based on that wording, C is clearly correct because the clause explicitly says workers must be competent, including having the ability to identify hazards. If there is no evidence of that ability, this directly supports a nonconformity against Clause 7.2.

F is also correct because Clause 7.2 requires the organization to determine the competence needed for roles and ensure workers meet it. If there is no evidence that workers’ knowledge and skills are assessed against role requirements, the organization cannot demonstrate that competence has been determined and verified.

H is the third correct answer because Clause 7.2 requires the organization to retain documented information as evidence of competence. Attendance on OH and S training is not, by itself, full proof of competence, but the absence of training records can still support a finding that the organization lacks documented evidence related to competence development and maintenance.

Why the others are not Clause 7.2 findings:

A belongs to Clause 7.3 Awareness, which requires awareness of the consequences of not conforming.

B also relates more to Clause 7.3 Awareness, which includes awareness of the ability to remove themselves from imminent and serious danger.

D is also Clause 7.3 Awareness, because workers must understand their contribution to the effectiveness of the OHSMS.

E relates to consultation and participation under Clause 5.4, not competence.

G refers to quality policy and objectives, which are not ISO 45001 OH and S competence requirements.

Answer: A-Fair, truthful, sincere, honest, discreet; B-Tactful in dealing with individuals; C-Willing to learn from situations; D-Aware of and able to understand situations

ISO 19011 identifies specific professional behaviours expected of auditors. Ethical means being fair, truthful, sincere, honest and discreet, supporting integrity and confidence in the audit process. Diplomatic means being tactful when dealing with individuals, particularly when asking difficult questions or communicating adverse findings. Open to improvement means being willing to learn from situations and improve one ' s auditing competence and approach. Perceptive means being aware of and able to understand situations rather than merely recording superficial observations. The two unused descriptions represent other ISO 19011 behaviours: actively observing surroundings and activities relates to being observant, while being persistent and focused on objectives describes being tenacious. These distinctions are explicitly reflected in ISO 19011 ' s auditor personal-behaviour guidance.

ISO 45001 requires the organization to adapt the work to workers as part of operational planning and control. Clause 8.1.1(d) states that the organization shall plan, implement, control and maintain the necessary processes, including adapting the work to workers. Annex A.8.1.1 then gives examples, including: redefining how work is organized, redefining processes and work environments, and using ergonomic approaches in the design or modification of workplaces and equipment.

Based on that, D. Providing those who spend the majority of their working days on their computers with frequent breaks is a valid example because it adapts the organization of work to human needs and helps reduce strain and fatigue. This matches the Annex guidance about redefining how work is organized and using ergonomic approaches.

F. Amending a control station to facilitate handicapped workers is also a clear example. ISO 45001 specifically refers to using ergonomic approaches in the design of new workplaces/equipment or in modifying workplaces/equipment. Changing a control station to suit disabled workers is exactly the kind of ergonomic and workplace adaptation the standard is referring to.

G. Amending the start and finish times of processes to accommodate cultural practices is the third valid example, because Annex A.8.1.1 includes the definition or redefinition of how work is organized. Adjusting working times to suit workers’ needs is a direct way of adapting work organization to workers.

Why the others are not the best examples:

A is about competence, which relates more to Clause 7.2 Competence, not adapting work to workers.

B is not appropriate because if workers speak different languages and there are no subtitles, the communication is not being made understandable; ISO 45001 expects information to be comprehensible and identifies language barriers as participation barriers.

C relates to worker participation and consultation, not adapting work to workers.

E is good housekeeping/welfare, but not specifically an example of adapting work to workers in the sense used by ISO 45001 Annex A.8.1.1.

H relates to planning under Clause 6.1, not adapting work to workers.

Therefore, the three actual examples of adapting work to workers are:

D, F, G

Option A reproduces the ISO management-system definition of an interested party: a person or organisation that can affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision or activity. This concept is fundamental to ISO 45001 Clause 4.2 because an organisation must determine relevant interested parties and their relevant needs and expectations when establishing its OHSMS context. Examples can include workers, contractors, regulators, suppliers, customers, neighbouring communities and other stakeholders. Options B, C and D alter the defined relationship by substituting terms such as “influence,” “interfere” or limiting the concept to a third party. Those formulations do not match the standardized ISO terminology. The same standardized interested-party wording is published in ISO ' s terminology resources.

The correct answer is A. Audit findings that pose a significant health and safety risk.

In management system auditing practice, the audit team leader is expected to maintain communication with the auditee during the audit, especially when serious issues are identified. Where audit evidence indicates a significant risk, this should be communicated without waiting for the closing meeting, so the organization can take prompt action if needed. ISO guidance on conducting audits emphasizes communication during the audit and presentation of findings and conclusions at the closing meeting, while serious risks are handled immediately rather than being delayed. (ISO)

Why the other options are not correct:

B. The outcome of the audit, including the conclusion is normally communicated at the closing meeting, not before it. (Advisera)

C. Diverging opinions within the audit team are internal audit team matters. Only unresolved issues relevant to audit results may be raised appropriately, but internal team differences are not the key information to communicate beforehand.

D. Performance of individual workers when responding to health and safety-related questions is not the purpose of audit reporting. A management system audit evaluates the system and its implementation, not individual worker appraisal.

Therefore, the information that should be communicated to the auditee before the closing meeting is:

A. Audit findings that pose a significant health and safety risk.

ISO 45001 Clause 5.2 OH and S policy requires top management to establish, implement and maintain an OH and S policy that includes a commitment to provide safe and healthy working conditions, fulfill legal and other requirements, and achieve continual improvement of the OH and S management system. It also requires the policy to be communicated within the organization and to be available to interested parties, as appropriate.

B. The management is committed to health and safety improvement is correct because the policy states: “Continual health and safety improvement is a permanent objective of the organisation.” That clearly demonstrates commitment to improvement, which aligns with Clause 5.2.

C. The organisation intends to communicate its policy to external parties is correct because the policy says: “Where required, the policy shall be communicated to all interested parties.” This matches the ISO 45001 requirement that the OH and S policy be available to interested parties, as appropriate.

G. The organisation is committed to continual health and safety improvement is also correct because the statement explicitly says: “Continual health and safety improvement is a permanent objective of the organisation.” This directly reflects the requirement for continual improvement in the OH and S policy.

Why the other options are not supported by the policy statement:

A is not correct because the policy expresses intent to work in accordance with regulations, but it does not prove the organization meets all statutory requirements in practice.

D is not correct because the policy does not provide evidence of reputation.

E is not correct because the policy does not prove that processes actually deliver improvement; it only states commitment.

F is not correct because the policy mentions contractors, but it does not prove that contractors themselves are committed to health and safety.

H is not correct because the policy mentions safe experiences and customers, but it does not prove that customer health and safety requirements are satisfied.

Therefore, the three options for which the organization is meeting ISO 45001 policy requirements are:

B, C, G

The correct answers are D, F, H.

ISO 19011 guidance on generating audit findings says that nonconformities can be graded depending on the context of the organization and its risks. That directly supports D, because any grading should reflect the risk the nonconformity presents to the organization. The same guidance also says this grading can be quantitative (for example 1 to 5) or qualitative (for example minor/major), which makes F correct. Because the wording is “can be graded”, grading is optional rather than mandatory, so H is also true. (Synersia Foundation)

Why the other options are not true:

A is not a requirement in ISO 19011. An organization may define grading rules in its audit programme or procedure, but there is no rule that grading must be agreed with the individual(s) managing the audit programme. (ISO)

B is false. ISO 19011 does not recommend that top management grade nonconformities. Audit findings are generated by auditors based on objective evidence and audit criteria. (ISO)

C is false. A second-party audit team does not have to adopt the auditee’s grading system. The grading approach can follow the auditing organization’s own rules and purpose for the audit. (ISO)

E is false. Additional documented information at the closing meeting does not mean the grading must be changed. The evidence should be reviewed, but unresolved issues may simply remain recorded in the audit report. (Synersia Foundation)

G is false. There is no requirement that extra grading categories must be agreed with the auditee before the closing meeting. The auditee should understand the findings, but the grading framework is not something ISO 19011 requires to be negotiated at that point. (ISO)

2. Prepare the audit checklist, 3. Obtain objective evidence, 4. Review audit evidence, 5. Document findings

For a first-party audit, the sequence follows the normal audit flow described in ISO auditing guidance: first the audit is initiated and leadership is assigned, then audit activities are prepared, then evidence is collected during the audit, then that evidence is evaluated, then findings are recorded, and finally the audit report is issued. ISO 19011 describes the audit flow as initiating the audit, preparing audit activities, conducting audit activities, and preparing and distributing the audit report. (ISO)

That is why, after 1. Appoint an audit team leader, the next correct step is 2. Prepare the audit checklist. The checklist is part of preparing for the audit and helps the auditor plan questions, clauses, process interactions, and sampling points before going on to collect evidence. (WEDEAQ | Official VDA QMC Partner)

After preparation, the auditor moves to 3. Obtain objective evidence. Audit evidence is gathered through interviews, observation, and review of documented information during the audit. This is a core activity of conducting the audit. (DNV)

Once evidence is collected, the auditor must 4. Review audit evidence. ISO audit practice requires the evidence to be evaluated against the audit criteria to determine whether conformity or nonconformity exists. Evidence is not simply collected and reported immediately; it is first reviewed and assessed. (PRETESH BISWAS)

After reviewing the evidence, the auditor can 5. Document findings. Findings are the result of evaluating the evidence against criteria, so they logically come after evidence review. Recorded findings can include conformity, nonconformity, and opportunities for improvement, depending on the audit plan and method. (PRETESH BISWAS)

The final step is 6. Issue the report, because the report is prepared only after the audit evidence has been reviewed and the findings have been determined and documented. (ISO)

So, the correct full order is:

1. Appoint an audit team leader

2. Prepare the audit checklist

3. Obtain objective evidence

4. Review audit evidence

5. Document findings

6. Issue the report

The correct answers are D and F.

In audit interviewing practice, open questions are mainly used to get explanation, description, and insight, while closed questions are used to confirm specific facts or verify that the auditor’s understanding is correct. Guidance on audit interviews says auditors should rely mainly on open questions for expanded responses and use closed questions to confirm answers. (The Auditor)

That is why D. To confirm conformity or a non-conformity finding is correct. Once the auditor has gathered evidence, a closed question can be used to verify a precise point, confirm whether a requirement has or has not been met, or make sure the factual basis of a conformity/nonconformity is accurate before recording the finding. ISO 19011 also states that nonconformities and supporting audit evidence should be reviewed with the auditee so the evidence is accurate and understood. (Synersia Foundation)

F. To check that your understanding of a situation is correct is also correct. Closed questions are especially useful at the end of a discussion to confirm the auditor’s interpretation of what was said or observed. This is a standard interview technique in auditing. (Designing Buildings)

Why the other options are not correct:

A. To obtain an overview of how a task is performed is better done with open questions, because the auditor needs explanation and sequence. (The Auditor)

B. To establish communication with the auditee with a view to building trust is usually done through general conversation and open dialogue, not mainly through closed questioning. (The Auditor)

C. To gain greater insight into the operation of a process also requires open questions. (The Auditor)

E. To follow your audit trail generally needs probing and exploratory questions, which are typically open rather than closed. (The Auditor)