Free Practice Questions for Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam

This case suggests diversion of prescription opioids, a serious safety and regulatory concern. The physician must balance maintaining patient care with minimizing risk. Daily dispensing via a monitored pharmacy is the safest and most practical solution to prevent misuse or theft, while avoiding immediate discontinuation of the patient’s needed medication.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Chronic Pain & Substance Use:

“In cases of concern for opioid diversion, consider witnessed daily dispensing, prescription monitoring, and involving caregivers when appropriate.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Pain Management > 56-2):

“The candidate must demonstrate understanding of strategies for safe prescribing and monitoring of controlled substances, including mitigation of diversion.”

Calling the police (A) is not the physician’s immediate duty. Providing an early refill (B) worsens risk. Tapering (C) may be appropriate later, but first the medication must be safeguarded. Increasing quantity (D) is inappropriate.

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MCCQE ELOM objectives stress that physicians must prescribe controlled substances responsibly, use evidence-based pain management, and maintain professional boundaries despite pressure or threats of complaints. A threat to complain does not obligate opioid prescribing, especially in a patient with opioid use disorder where opioids increase risk of relapse, overdose, and diversion. The appropriate response is to remain calm, document the assessment and rationale, and ensure the patient is offered safe alternatives and continuity of care. Directing him to his methadone maintenance program is best because it supports coordinated management within an established addiction-treatment framework (often with structured monitoring, agreements, and access to addiction/pain expertise).

Prescribing “a small amount” or giving an injection undermines safe prescribing practices and reinforces drug-seeking behavior. Calling police is reserved for immediate safety threats, not dissatisfaction. Lumbar radiography is not the next step unless red flags are present; it does not address the ethical issue. Coordinated care with the methadone program and non-opioid strategies is the safest, most appropriate action.

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One of the strongest modifiable risk factors for postoperative delirium in older adults is exposure to anticholinergic medications (e.g., diphenhydramine, certain antidepressants). Avoiding these can reduce delirium risk.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Geriatrics, “Delirium Prevention”:

“Avoid high-risk medications including anticholinergics, benzodiazepines, and narcotics if possible. Maintain orientation cues and adequate pain control.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Impairment):

“Candidates must recognize predisposing factors for delirium and apply prevention strategies, including medication review.”

Opiates (B) should be used judiciously; untreated pain can also cause delirium. Cognitive screening (C) is helpful for baseline but does not prevent delirium. Benzodiazepines (D) increase delirium risk. Family involvement is actually helpful (E).

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The most appropriate next step is to screen for postpartum depression . MCCQE objectives emphasize the importance of assessing maternal mental health at routine infant visits, particularly in the first months postpartum. This mother reports exhaustion, difficulty coping, and limited social support (husband deployed), all of which are risk factors for postpartum depression. Although infant growth is normal and frequent crying at 1 month can be physiologic (e.g., colic/normal infant behavior), the key clinical issue is maternal distress and functional impairment.

Postpartum depression can present with fatigue, irritability, sleep disturbance beyond expected newborn care, feelings of being overwhelmed, and impaired bonding. Early identification through targeted questioning or validated screening tools (e.g., Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale) allows timely intervention, which benefits both mother and infant.

Simply reassuring her may miss significant depressive symptoms. Increasing feeds or switching formula is not indicated with normal growth and no allergy signs. Lactation referral may help feeding mechanics but does not address maternal psychological well-being. Therefore, screening for depression is the priority.

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is most likely because the patient has symptoms persisting more than 1 month after a traumatic event (motor vehicle collision) with functional impairment (difficulty returning to work/driving). MCCQE objectives emphasize PTSD core symptom clusters: intrusion (recurrent distressing dreams/nightmares), avoidance (fear and distress when attempting to drive or be in a car), negative alterations in cognition/mood, and hyperarousal. His intense dread and autonomic-type symptoms (dizziness, feeling faint) triggered by car exposure fit trauma-related reactivity and avoidance.

Panic disorder requires recurrent unexpected panic attacks with ongoing concern or maladaptive behavior; here, the episodes are situationally triggered by reminders of the trauma and accompanied by trauma nightmares, supporting PTSD over panic disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry about multiple domains for at least 6 months, not specifically tied to a trauma cue with nightmares. Malingering implies intentional symptom fabrication for external gain and is not supported by the consistent trauma-linked symptoms and re-experiencing.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

An advance directive is a legally binding document that outlines a competent person ' s preferences regarding future medical care. If the patient clearly stated a refusal of treatment in the event of a life-threatening condition, this directive must be followed, even if the patient is currently incapacitated and family disagrees.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ethics and Law:

“Advance directives must be respected when valid, clear, and applicable. Substitute decision-makers cannot override them.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-4: Informed Consent and Advance Directives):

“Candidates must apply valid advance directives to guide care for incapacitated patients.”

B (parents as SDMs) is incorrect if an advance directive exists. A and D are irrelevant—capacity has already been documented. C is unnecessary when an advance directive is clear.

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Mumps is a contagious viral illness spread by respiratory droplets, with transmission occurring from shortly before symptom onset through the early symptomatic period. MCCQE objectives in outbreak management emphasize using effective, feasible source control measures that reduce onward transmission. The most effective intervention listed is exclusion (isolation) of symptomatic clinical cases from school and workplace during the infectious period, because symptomatic individuals are the main identifiable sources of spread and removal from congregate settings directly reduces contact rates and secondary cases.

Antivirals are not standard, effective therapy for mumps and do not control outbreaks. Excluding asymptomatic contacts before symptoms develop is generally less effective and often impractical, because many contacts will never become ill and transmission may already occur before recognition; blanket exclusion can also cause major disruption with limited incremental benefit. Closing an entire post-secondary institution is a high-impact measure with uncertain added benefit compared with targeted case exclusion and is typically reserved for extreme circumstances. Immunoglobulin is not an effective post-exposure prophylaxis for mumps. Therefore, isolating/excluding clinical cases is the best and most effective intervention among the options.

The patient’s pain is no longer medically justified for opioids, but there is no evidence of misuse. The most appropriate and supportive action is to explain concerns, provide education about opioid tapering or dependency, and transition care to her family physician for ongoing management.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Safe Prescribing and Opioid Stewardship” Section:

“When opioids are no longer indicated, engage the patient in a conversation about tapering and arrange appropriate follow-up. Coordinate care with primary providers when long-term management is needed.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Substance Use):

“Candidates must address the risk of dependency, counsel the patient, and ensure a safe transition to appropriate care without abrupt termination.”

Methadone (E) and fentanyl (A) are for opioid use disorder or chronic pain, not for tapering in low-risk patients. Discharging the patient (B) or reporting (C) is punitive and unnecessary.

In pediatric trauma, inability to void with perineal bruising raises concern for urethral injury or urinary retention due to soft tissue swelling. The most immediate step is to attempt bladder catheterization. If unsuccessful, consult gynecology or urology urgently to avoid bladder overdistension.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Genitourinary Trauma:

“In females, perineal trauma can lead to urinary retention due to labial hematomas or urethral injury. If catheterization is difficult, consult gynecology or urology for assistance.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Trauma and Emergency Care:

“Candidates must recognize when specialist consultation is required in pediatric genitourinary trauma, especially in cases of failed catheterization.”

Options B and D delay necessary care. Coagulation studies (C) may be considered if bleeding is unexplained. Abuse assessment (E) may be necessary later but does not address immediate retention.

A 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation is commonly used in the evaluation of vaginal discharge. In bacterial vaginosis (BV) , adding KOH to a vaginal sample produces a characteristic “whiff test” —a strong fishy amine odor caused by volatilization of amines from anaerobic bacteria (e.g., Gardnerella vaginalis and other anaerobes). MCCQE objectives emphasize recognition of BV as the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in reproductive-age women. Clinical features include thin, gray-white, malodorous discharge without significant inflammation.

KOH microscopy may also reveal clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells coated with bacteria).

Trichomonas vaginalis is diagnosed by saline wet mount showing motile trichomonads or by nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT), not primarily by KOH. Chlamydia trachomatis and gonorrhea are diagnosed by NAAT. Group B streptococcus is identified by culture.

Thus, use of 10% KOH to confirm a fishy odor (positive whiff test) supports the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis .

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