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Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Historical trend analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?

A.

Limited blockchain adoption and support

B.

Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness

C.

Reduced network integrity and availability

D.

Limited integration with external systems and blockchains

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?

A.

Assessing regulatory requirements

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Gaining management consensus

D.

Identifying risk tolerance

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a potential threat?

A.

Increase in identified system vulnerabilities

B.

Ineffective risk treatment plans

C.

Excessive policy and standard exceptions

D.

Excessive activity in system logs

A risk practitioner is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a breach at a hosted third-party provider. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Include an indemnification clause in the provider's contract.

B.

Monitor provider performance against service level agreements (SLAs).

C.

Purchase cyber insurance to protect against data breaches.

D.

Ensure appropriate security controls are in place through independent audits.

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?

A.

Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment

B.

Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access

C.

Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers

D.

Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Development

C.

Implementation

D.

Initiation

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?

A.

Risk manager

B.

Data owner

C.

End user

D.

IT department

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

An organization has established a contract with a vendor that includes penalties for loss of availability. Which risk treatment has been adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Avoidance

C.

Transfer

D.

Reduction

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.

B.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available

C.

Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.

D.

Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?

A.

Unknown vulnerabilities

B.

Legacy technology systems

C.

Network isolation

D.

Overlapping threats

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.

B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.

C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.

D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact

Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?

A.

Data owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

System owner

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

Which of the following outcomes of disaster recovery planning is MOST important to enable the initiation of necessary actions during a disaster?

A.

Definition of disaster recovery plan (DRP) scope and key stakeholders

B.

Recovery time and maximum acceptable data loss thresholds

C.

A checklist including equipment, location of data backups, and backup sites

D.

A list of business areas and critical functions subject to risk analysis

Which of the following would qualify as a key performance indicator (KPI)?

A.

Aggregate risk of the organization

B.

Number of identified system vulnerabilities

C.

Number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days

D.

Number of attacks against the organization's website

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?

A.

To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program

B.

To detect increases in program costs

C.

To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner

D.

To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee

Which of the following information is MOST useful to a risk practitioner for developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Published vulnerabilities relevant to the business

B.

Threat actors that can trigger events

C.

Events that could potentially impact the business

D.

IT assets requiring the greatest investment

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

An organization mandates the escalation of a service ticket when a key application is offline for 5 minutes or more due to potential risk exposure. The risk practitioner has been asked by management to prepare a report of application offline times using both 3- and 5-minute thresholds. What does the 3-minute threshold represent?

A.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

B.

Key Risk Indicator (KRI)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for communicating current levels of IT-related risk to executive management?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk action plans

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to revisit a previously accepted risk?

A.

To update risk ownership

B.

To review the risk acceptance with new stakeholders

C.

To ensure risk levels have not changed

D.

To ensure controls are still operating effectively

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

Which key performance indicator (KPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

A.

Number of disaster recovery scenarios identified

B.

Percentage of employees involved in the disaster recovery exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within the recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within the recovery time objective (RTO)

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A.

Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.

B.

Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.

C.

Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.

D.

Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?

A.

Ensure compliance with the organization's internal policies

B.

Cultivate long-term behavioral change.

C.

Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.

D.

Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization's change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:

A.

rolled back changes below management's thresholds.

B.

change-related exceptions per month.

C.

the average implementation time for changes.

D.

number of user stories approved for implementation.

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

KRI design must precede definition of KCIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs are independent indicators and do not impact each other.

C.

A decreasing trend of KRI readings will lead to changes to KCIs.

D.

Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk.

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

A.

is in charge of information security.

B.

is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

can implement remediation action plans.

D.

is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report