Halloween Special - Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: sntaclus

An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?

A.

Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.

B.

Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.

C.

Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.

D.

Transfer a read-only version of the data.

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

Winch of the following is the BEST evidence of an effective risk treatment plan?

A.

The inherent risk is below the asset residual risk.

B.

Remediation cost is below the asset business value

C.

The risk tolerance threshold s above the asset residual

D.

Remediation is completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO)

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

A.

Risk policy

B.

Audit report

C.

Risk map

D.

Maturity model

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

Following a review of a third-party vendor, it is MOST important for an organization to ensure:

A.

results of the review are accurately reported to management.

B.

identified findings are reviewed by the organization.

C.

results of the review are validated by internal audit.

D.

identified findings are approved by the vendor.

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

A.

Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?

A.

Analyzing the residual risk components

B.

Performing risk prioritization

C.

Validating the risk appetite level

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

A.

Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network

B.

Identification and authentication failures for users

C.

Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches

D.

Ineffective load balancing on network devices

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that risk management is important in project management?

A.

It helps identify and mitigate potential issues that could derail projects.

B.

It helps to ensure project acceptance by end users.

C.

It reduces the risk associated with potential project scope creep.

D.

It facilitates agreement and collaboration on project goals among stakeholders.

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans?

A.

Risk policy review

B.

Business impact analysis (B1A)

C.

Control catalog

D.

Risk register

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

A.

Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

B.

Redact data where possible.

C.

Limit access to the personal data.

D.

Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?

A.

Inherent risk and likelihood

B.

Management action plans associated with audit findings

C.

Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI) trends

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

A.

Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

B.

Residual risk is inadequately recorded.

C.

Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.

D.

Residual risk equals current risk.

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?

A.

Postpone the risk assessment.

B.

Facilitate the exception process.

C.

Accept the manager's request.

D.

Reject the manager's request.

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

Which of the following information is MOST useful to a risk practitioner for developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Published vulnerabilities relevant to the business

B.

Threat actors that can trigger events

C.

Events that could potentially impact the business

D.

IT assets requiring the greatest investment

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Continuous monitoring and alerting

C.

Configuration management

D.

Access controls and active logging

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

A new software package that could help mitigate risk in an organization has become available. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Review industry best practice.

D.

Review risk governance policies.

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

A.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting.

B.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance.

C.

define the IT risk framework for the organization.

D.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies.

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when reporting changes to an organization's risk profile to executive management?

A.

Risk management resources

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Cyberattack threats

D.

Risk trends

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Update the KRI threshold.

B.

Recommend additional controls.

C.

Review incident handling procedures.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) to protect personal information on corporate mobile endpoints?

A.

Percentage of endpoints that are not encrypted

B.

Number of endpoints not compliant with patching policy

C.

Ratio of undiscoverable endpoints to encrypted endpoints

D.

Percentage of endpoints with outdated antivirus signatures