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To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

A risk practitioner has been made aware of a problem in an IT system that was missed during a routine risk assessment. Which of the following is the practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Record the problem as a new issue in the risk management system

B.

Record a new issue but backdate it to the original risk assessment date

C.

Report the vulnerability to the asset owner's manager

D.

Document the issue during the next risk assessment

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

Which of the following has the GREATEST positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process?

A.

Senior management demonstrates ethics in their day-to-day decision making.

B.

An independent ethics investigation team has been established.

C.

Employees are required to complete ethics training courses annually.

D.

The risk practitioner is required to consult with the ethics committee.

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?

A.

Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.

B.

System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.

C.

The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.

D.

The cloud provider is not independently certified.

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the confidentiality of data in the event of a data breach within a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment?

A.

Vendor's information security officer

B.

Customer's data privacy officer

C.

Customer's data owner

D.

Vendor's application owner

An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?

A.

Whether the service provider's data center is located in the same country

B.

Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted

C.

Whether the data has been appropriately classified

D.

Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and documenting control procedures?

A.

To facilitate ongoing audit and control testing

B.

To help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels

C.

To establish and maintain a control inventory

D.

To increase the likelihood of effective control operation

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

A.

Implement a replacement control.

B.

Adjust residual risk rating.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Review compensating controls.

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Analysis

C.

Identification

D.

Response selection

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Adherence to legal and compliance requirements

B.

Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase

C.

Establishment of digital forensic architectures

D.

Consistent management of information assets

Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?

A.

Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.

B.

Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.

C.

Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.

D.

Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.

An organization's risk management team wants to develop IT risk scenarios to show the impact of collecting and storing credit card information. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive approach to capture this scenario?

A.

Top-down analysis

B.

Event tree analysis

C.

Control gap analysis

D.

Bottom-up analysis

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?

A.

Code review

B.

Penetration test

C.

Gap assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an enhanced risk-aware culture?

A.

Users have read and agreed to comply with security policies.

B.

Risk issues are openly discussed within the organization.

C.

Scores have improved on risk awareness quizzes.

D.

There is a decrease in the number of reported incidents.

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

A.

Compliance objectives

B.

Risk appetite of the organization

C.

Organizational objectives

D.

Inherent and residual risk

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to aggregate risk assessment results from different business units?

A.

To improve communication of risk to senior management

B.

To compare risk profiles across the business units

C.

To allocate budget for risk management resources

D.

To determine overall impact to the organization

An organization has implemented a cloud-based backup solution to help prevent loss of transactional data from offices in an earthquake zone. This strategy demonstrates risk:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Transfer

D.

Acceptance

A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

update the risk register to reflect the correct level of residual risk.

B.

ensure risk monitoring for the project is initiated.

C.

conduct and document a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

verify cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented.

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office