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Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls?

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability assessments

B.

Communicating business impact analysis (BIA) results

C.

Establishing effective stakeholder relationships

D.

Defining the organization's risk management framework

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

A.

Providing ongoing training to the incident response team

B.

Implementing proactive systems monitoring

C.

Implementing a honeypot environment

D.

Updating information security awareness materials

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when creating information security policies?

A.

The information security framework

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Information security metrics

D.

Risk assessment results

An organization has determined that fixing a security vulnerability in a critical application is too costly to be feasible, but the impact is material to the business. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk treatment?

A.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

B.

Accept the risk associated with continued use of the application.

C.

Implement compensating controls for the application.

D.

Discontinue using the application.

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

A.

)the information security officer.

B.

the steering committee.

C.

the board of directors.

D.

the internal audit manager.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a SIEM flags a potential event?

A.

Validate the event is not a false positive.

B.

Initiate the incident response plan.

C.

Escalate the event to the business owner.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?

A.

Statistical reports will be incorrect.

B.

The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.

C.

Escalation procedures will be ineffective.

D.

Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when performing triage of a malware incident?

A.

Containing the affected system

B.

Preserving the forensic image

C.

Comparing backup against production

D.

Removing the malware

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security governance committee?

A.

Discussing upcoming information security projects

B.

Reviewing the information security risk register

C.

Approving changes to the information security strategy

D.

Reviewing monthly information security metrics

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

Which is the BEST method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required?

A.

Parallel test

B.

Full interruption test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Tabletop test

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has a mature information security culture?

A.

Information security training is mandatory for all staff.

B.

The organization's information security policy is documented and communicated.

C.

The chief information security officer (CISO) regularly interacts with the board.

D.

Staff consistently consider risk in making decisions.

Which of the following should be updated FIRST to account for new regulatory requirements that impact current information security controls?

A.

Control matrix

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Risk register

D.

Information security policy

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

Who should be responsible for determining the level of data classification required for an application related to a new line of business?

A.

Data analyst

B.

Information security officer (ISO)

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owners

An organization's information security manager is performing a post-incident review of a security incident in which the following events occurred:

• A bad actor broke into a business-critical FTP server by brute forcing an administrative password

• The third-party service provider hosting the server sent an automated alert message to the help desk, but was ignored

• The bad actor could not access the administrator console, but was exposed to encrypted data transferred to the server

• After three hours, the bad actor deleted the FTP directory, causing incoming FTP attempts by legitimate customers to fail

Which of the following could have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing?

A.

Ignored alert messages

B.

The server being compromised

C.

The brute force attack

D.

Stolen data

When an organization experiences a disruptive event, the business continuity plan (BCP) should be triggered PRIMARILY based on:

A.

expected duration of outage.

B.

management direction.

C.

type of security incident.

D.

the root cause of the event.