Which of the following IT disaster recovery plans includes a remote site designated for recovery with available space for basic services, such as internet and telecommunications, but does not have servers or infrastructure equipment?
Frozen site
Cold site
Warm site
Hot site
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
A Cold Site is a remote disaster recovery facility that provides physical space and basic utilities such as electricity, internet, and telecommunications but does not include pre-installed servers, networking equipment, or other IT infrastructure. It requires a longer recovery time since the organization must procure, install, and configure necessary hardware and software before resuming operations.
A. Frozen Site – This is not a recognized term in IT disaster recovery planning.
C. Warm Site – A warm site has some pre-installed hardware and infrastructure but requires additional setup before full operation.
D. Hot Site – A hot site is a fully functional duplicate of the original site, with real-time data replication, allowing for immediate recovery.
The IIA Global Technology Audit Guide (GTAG) 10: Business Continuity Management emphasizes that organizations should classify recovery sites based on risk tolerance and recovery time objectives (RTO).
The IIA’s International Professional Practices Framework (IPPF) – Practice Advisory 2110-2 discusses IT continuity and disaster recovery as a critical element of internal audit assessments.
NIST Special Publication 800-34 (Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems) defines and categorizes disaster recovery sites, aligning with the cold site definition.
Explanation of the Other Options:IIA References & Best Practices:Thus, the correct answer is B. Cold Site.
While conducting' audit procedures at the organization's data center an internal auditor noticed the following:
- Backup media was located on data center shelves.
- Backup media was organized by date.
- Backup schedule was one week in duration.
The system administrator was able to present restore logs.
Which of the following is reasonable for the internal auditor to conclude?
Backup media is not properly stored, as the storage facility should be off-site.
Backup procedures are adequate and appropriate according to best practices.
Backup media is not properly indexed, as backup media should be indexed by system, not date.
Backup schedule is not sufficient, as full backup should be conducted daily.
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
The auditor's observation indicates that backup media is stored on-site in the data center, which is a major risk in disaster recovery and business continuity planning (BCP). Best practices recommend storing backup media off-site to prevent data loss due to fires, floods, cyberattacks, or other disasters affecting the primary site.
Off-Site Storage Reduces Disaster Risks:
Keeping backups only at the primary data center means that any physical disaster (fire, flood, theft, or power surge) can destroy both primary and backup data.
Best practices require off-site or cloud-based backup storage to ensure data recovery in case of emergencies.
Regulatory and Compliance Considerations:
IIA Standard 2110 (Governance): Emphasizes disaster recovery policies to protect critical IT assets.
ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management System): Recommends storing backups in a geographically separate location.
NIST SP 800-34 (Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems): Requires off-site storage to ensure effective disaster recovery.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Backup procedures are adequate and appropriate according to best practices: ❌
Incorrect, as on-site-only storage violates best practices for disaster recovery.
C. Backup media is not properly indexed, as backup media should be indexed by system, not date: ❌
While indexing is important, the main issue here is improper storage, not indexing methods.
D. Backup schedule is not sufficient, as full backup should be conducted daily: ❌
Backup frequency depends on business needs; a weekly backup is common for many organizations.
However, the biggest concern here is lack of off-site storage, not frequency.
IIA GTAG (Global Technology Audit Guide) on Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery: Recommends off-site storage for backups.
ISO/IEC 27001 – Information Security Controls (A.12.3.1): Requires backup data to be securely stored off-site.
COBIT 5 Framework – DSS04 (Manage Continuity): Supports off-site backups for IT continuity.
Step-by-Step Justification:IIA References:Thus, the correct answer is A. Backup media is not properly stored, as the storage facility should be off-site. ✅
Which of the following statements is true regarding change management?
The degree of risk associated with a proposed change determines whether the change request requires authorization
Program changes generally are developed and tested in the production environment.
Changes are only required by software programs
To protect the production environment, changes must be managed in a repeatable, defined, and predictable manner
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Change management is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams, and organizations from a current state to a desired future state while minimizing risk and disruption.
Definition of Change Management:
Change management ensures that all modifications to IT systems, processes, and applications are controlled and documented.
As per the IIA GTAG on Change Management, an effective change management process should be repeatable, defined, and predictable to reduce errors and system failures.
Why Change Management Must Be Structured?
Uncontrolled changes increase risks such as security vulnerabilities, data loss, and system downtime.
Best practices (e.g., ITIL, COBIT) require organizations to follow a consistent change management process to protect the production environment.
A structured approach includes:
Documenting change requests
Testing in non-production environments
Gaining approvals before deployment
Why Not Other Options?
A. The degree of risk associated with a proposed change determines whether the change request requires authorization:
All changes should require authorization, not just high-risk ones.
B. Program changes generally are developed and tested in the production environment:
Changes should never be tested in production due to risk exposure. Best practice is to test in a development or staging environment first.
C. Changes are only required by software programs:
Change management applies broadly to IT infrastructure, business processes, security protocols, and governance frameworks, not just software.
IIA GTAG – Change Management Controls
COBIT 2019 – Change Management Best Practices
ITIL Change Management Framework
IIA Standard 2120 – Risk Management
Step-by-Step Justification:IIA References:Thus, the correct and verified answer is D. To protect the production environment, changes must be managed in a repeatable, defined, and predictable manner.
Which of the following statements is true regarding a project life cycle?
Risk and uncertainty increase over the life of the project.
Costs and staffing levels are typically high as the project draws to a close.
Costs related to making changes increase as the project approaches completion.
The project life cycle corresponds with the life cycle of the product produced by or modified by the project.
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
Understanding the Project Life Cycle:
The project life cycle consists of initiation, planning, execution, and closure.
Early stages involve planning and defining scope, while later stages focus on execution and completion.
Why Change Costs Increase Over Time:
In early stages, changes are relatively inexpensive as they mainly involve planning adjustments.
As the project progresses, modifications require rework, additional resources, and schedule delays, increasing costs.
Near project completion, changes can be very costly, requiring significant time and effort to correct.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Risk and uncertainty increase over time – Incorrect; risk and uncertainty decrease as the project moves forward and becomes more defined.
B. Costs and staffing levels are high at project close – Incorrect; they are usually highest during execution, not closure.
D. Project life cycle = product life cycle – Incorrect; they are separate concepts. A product may exist long after the project ends.
IIA GTAG 12 – Auditing IT Projects: Discusses project life cycle and cost implications.
IIA Practice Guide on Project Risk Management: Highlights cost escalation risks in later project phases.
PMBOK (Project Management Body of Knowledge) Framework: Defines cost increase trends in project management.
Relevant IIA References:✅ Final Answer: Costs related to making changes increase as the project approaches completion (Option C).
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following would likely have the most impact on retaining staff, if their lower-level needs are already met?
Social benefits.
Compensation.
Job safety.
Recognition
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, once an individual’s lower-level needs (physiological, safety, and social needs) are met, they seek higher-level motivators such as esteem and self-actualization. Recognition falls under esteem needs, which include respect, status, and appreciation. Employees who feel valued and recognized are more likely to stay with an organization.
A. Social benefits – These are lower-level needs (belongingness/social needs), which have already been met in this scenario.
B. Compensation – While salary is important, it primarily addresses physiological and security needs, which are lower on Maslow’s hierarchy. Once these are met, higher-level motivators like recognition become more influential.
C. Job safety – Safety and security are lower-level needs, and in this scenario, they are already met.
D. Recognition (Correct Answer) – Falls under esteem needs, which are crucial for employee retention once basic needs are satisfied.
IIA IPPF Standard 2120 – Risk Management includes talent management as part of organizational sustainability.
COSO ERM Framework – Human Capital Risk highlights employee motivation as a key factor in risk management.
IIA GTAG 7 – Managing IT Security Risks discusses employee satisfaction and its impact on organizational security and retention.
Explanation of Each Option:IIA References:
An internal auditor has requested the organizational chart in order to evaluate the control environment of an organization. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the organizational chart?
The organizational chart shows only formal relationships.
The organizational chart shows only the line of authority.
The organizational chart shows only the senior management positions.
The organizational chart is irrelevant when testing the control environment.
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
An organizational chart is a visual representation of the company's structure, depicting reporting lines and hierarchical relationships. However, it has limitations when assessing the control environment.
Let's analyze each option:
A. The organizational chart shows only formal relationships. ✅ (Correct Answer)
Correct. The organizational chart illustrates formal authority structures but does not capture informal relationships, influence, or communication patterns that impact decision-making and control effectiveness.
Informal networks, such as cross-functional collaboration and shadow leadership structures, are critical but not reflected in an org chart.
B. The organizational chart shows only the line of authority.
Incorrect. The org chart displays more than just authority lines, including departments, reporting structures, and sometimes functional responsibilities.
C. The organizational chart shows only the senior management positions.
Incorrect. Org charts often include multiple levels of employees, not just senior management. Many detailed org charts cover entire departments, middle management, and functional teams.
D. The organizational chart is irrelevant when testing the control environment.
Incorrect. While it has limitations, the org chart is still useful for understanding reporting lines, segregation of duties, and governance structures when assessing internal controls. It provides insights into accountability and decision-making authority.
IIA Standard 2130 – Control Environment Assessment – Highlights the importance of organizational structure in evaluating internal controls.
COSO Internal Control – Integrated Framework – Discusses how formal and informal structures impact control effectiveness.
IIA Practice Guide – Assessing Organizational Governance – Covers limitations of relying solely on formal organizational structures.
ISO 37000 – Governance of Organizations – Addresses the role of hierarchy and informal influence in corporate governance.
IIA References:Would you like me to verify more que
According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding penetration testing?
Testing should not be announced to anyone within the organization to solicit a real-life response.
Testing should take place during heavy operational time periods to test system resilience.
Testing should be wide in scope and primarily address detective management controls for identifying potential attacks.
Testing should address the preventive controls and management's response.
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Penetration testing is a security practice used to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's information systems by simulating cyberattacks. It is an essential component of IT risk management and internal auditing under The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) standards, particularly in the context of IT governance, cybersecurity risk management, and control assurance.
Focus on Preventive Controls:
Penetration testing evaluates how well preventive controls (e.g., firewalls, encryption, authentication mechanisms) work against potential cyberattacks.
According to the IIA Global Technology Audit Guide (GTAG) 11: Developing an IT Audit Plan, testing should emphasize preventive security measures to minimize risks.
Management’s Response Assessment:
The effectiveness of an organization's incident response plan is also evaluated.
Management's reaction to simulated cyber threats ensures that detection and response mechanisms are functional and aligned with IIA Standard 2120 – Risk Management and IIA GTAG 1: Information Security Governance.
A. Testing should not be announced to anyone within the organization to solicit a real-life response. (Incorrect)
Reason: While unannounced tests (e.g., red team exercises) can provide real-world insights, penetration testing should be coordinated with IT and security personnel.
IIA GTAG 11 emphasizes structured and ethical testing approaches, ensuring that necessary stakeholders are informed to prevent operational disruptions.
B. Testing should take place during heavy operational time periods to test system resilience. (Incorrect)
Reason: While resilience testing is important, penetration testing is typically performed in controlled conditions to avoid disrupting business operations.
IIA Standard 2130 – Control supports minimizing business risks during testing.
C. Testing should be wide in scope and primarily address detective management controls for identifying potential attacks. (Incorrect)
Reason: While detection controls (e.g., intrusion detection systems) are important, penetration testing focuses primarily on preventive controls.
IIA GTAG 1 and IIA GTAG 11 stress proactive security strategies over purely detective measures.
IIA Global Technology Audit Guide (GTAG) 11: Developing an IT Audit Plan – Covers IT security testing, including penetration testing.
IIA GTAG 1: Information Security Governance – Emphasizes the role of security assessments.
IIA Standard 2120 – Risk Management – Highlights the importance of testing preventive security measures.
IIA Standard 2130 – Control – Discusses ensuring operational effectiveness during testing.
Explanation of the Correct Answer (D):Analysis of Incorrect Answers:IIA References:Thus, D is the most accurate choice as per IIA guidance.
Which of the following facilitates data extraction from an application?
Application program code.
Database system.
Operating system.
Networks.
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
Data extraction involves retrieving data from various sources for processing or storage. Among the options provided, the database system is the component that facilitates data extraction from an application. Here's why:
A. Application Program Code:
While the application program code defines the logic and functionality of an application, it doesn't inherently provide mechanisms for data extraction. Instead, it interacts with databases to perform operations like data retrieval, insertion, or modification.
B. Database System:
A database system is designed to store, manage, and retrieve data efficiently. It offers structured methods, such as querying with SQL, to extract specific data as needed. Applications rely on the database system to access and extract the required data for various operations. For instance, in a relational database, data extraction is performed using SQL queries that retrieve data based on specified criteria. This process is fundamental to operations like reporting, analytics, and data migration.
teradata.com
C. Operating System:
The operating system manages hardware resources and provides services for application execution but doesn't directly handle data extraction from applications. It ensures that applications have the necessary environment to run but delegates data management tasks to the database systems.
D. Networks:
Networks facilitate data transmission between systems but don't directly extract data from applications. They provide the pathways for data to travel between clients and servers or between different systems but aren't responsible for the extraction process within an application.
In summary, the database system is the component that provides the necessary tools and methods for data extraction within an application, making option B the correct answer.
According to The IIA's Three Lines Model, which of the following IT security activities is commonly shared by all three lines?
Assessments of third parties and suppliers.
Recruitment and retention of certified IT talent.
Classification of data and design of access privileges.
Creation and maintenance of secure network and device configuration.
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
Understanding The IIA’s Three Lines Model:
The Three Lines Model defines responsibilities for risk management and control across different organizational functions:
First Line: Operational management (owns and manages risks).
Second Line: Risk and compliance functions (monitors and facilitates risk management).
Third Line: Internal audit (provides independent assurance).
Why Third-Party and Supplier Assessments Are Shared Across All Three Lines:
First Line (Operational Teams & IT Security): Ensures that vendors comply with security standards.
Second Line (Risk & Compliance Teams): Conducts due diligence and ensures compliance with cybersecurity regulations.
Third Line (Internal Audit): Independently evaluates supplier risk management processes.
Why Other Options Are Less Relevant:
B. Recruitment and retention of certified IT talent – Primarily a first-line management responsibility (HR and IT departments).
C. Classification of data and design of access privileges – Typically a first-line IT security function, with oversight from the second line.
D. Creation and maintenance of secure network configurations – Falls under first-line IT operations with oversight but not shared by all three lines.
IIA’s Three Lines Model (2020 Update): Emphasizes shared responsibilities in areas like third-party risk.
IIA Practice Guide on Third-Party Risk Management: Internal audit must assess supplier security and compliance.
COSO ERM Framework: Highlights vendor risk management as a cross-functional responsibility.
Relevant IIA References:✅ Final Answer: Assessments of third parties and suppliers (Option A).
When executive compensation is based on the organization's financial results, which of the following situations is most likely to arise?
The organization reports inappropriate estimates and accruals due to poof accounting controls.
The organization uses an unreliable process forgathering and reporting executive compensation data.
The organization experiences increasing discontent of employees, if executives are eligible for compensation amounts that are deemed unreasonable.
The organization encourages employee behavior that is inconsistent with the interests of relevant stakeholders.
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
When executive compensation is tied to financial results, there is a strong incentive to manipulate financial reporting or focus solely on short-term performance at the expense of stakeholders’ interests.
Potential for Unethical Behavior:
Executives may prioritize profit-driven decisions (e.g., cost-cutting, aggressive revenue recognition) over long-term sustainability.
As per IIA Standard 2110 – Governance, incentive structures should align with ethical business practices and stakeholder interests.
Increased Risk of Fraud and Misrepresentation:
The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) Fraud Risk Management Guide highlights how executive incentives can lead to financial statement manipulation.
This could result in actions like aggressive revenue recognition, improper expense deferrals, or overstating earnings to boost compensation.
Misalignment with Stakeholder Interests:
Employees, customers, and investors suffer if executive compensation encourages short-term gains over long-term stability.
IIA GTAG 3: Continuous Auditing supports monitoring financial reporting risks to detect such inconsistencies.
A. The organization reports inappropriate estimates and accruals due to poor accounting controls. (Incorrect)
Reason: While poor controls can contribute to misstatements, the root cause in this scenario is compensation structure, not control weakness.
B. The organization uses an unreliable process for gathering and reporting executive compensation data. (Incorrect)
Reason: This issue relates to HR and payroll data integrity, not the impact of performance-based compensation on behavior.
C. The organization experiences increasing discontent of employees, if executives are eligible for compensation amounts that are deemed unreasonable. (Incorrect)
Reason: While excessive executive pay may cause employee dissatisfaction, the question focuses on behavioral impacts on stakeholders, making D the more relevant choice.
IIA Standard 2110 – Governance – Ensures executive compensation aligns with organizational ethics and stakeholder interests.
IIA Standard 2120 – Risk Management – Covers the risks associated with incentive-based compensation.
COSO Fraud Risk Management Guide – Discusses financial fraud linked to executive compensation.
IIA GTAG 3: Continuous Auditing – Supports risk-based monitoring of financial statements.
Why is Answer D Correct?Analysis of Incorrect Answers:IIA References:Thus, the correct answer is D. The organization encourages employee behavior that is inconsistent with the interests of relevant stakeholders.