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Which of the following techniques would be least effective in resolving the conflict created by an internal audit client's perception of the audit report as a personal attack on his management performance?

A.

The auditor should focus on the audit client as a person and understand him, rather than just

concentrating on the problem.

B.

The auditor should make recommendations based on objective criteria, rather than based on a subjective assessment.

C.

The auditor should explore alternative solutions to address the audit problem, so the audit client has options.

D.

The auditor should take a flexible position on the recommendations and focus on resolving the issue by addressing the interests of the people concerned.

Which of the following is not a common feature of cumulative preferred stock?

A.

Priority over common stock with regard to dilution of shares.

B.

Priority over common stock with regard to earnings.

C.

Priority over common stock with regard to dividend payment.

D.

Priority over common stock with regard to assets.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibility of the internal audit activity (IAA) regarding IT governance?

1) The IAA does not have any responsibility because IT governance is the responsibility of the board and senior management of the organization.

2) The IAA must assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

3) The IAA may assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

4) The IAA may accept requests from management to perform advisory services regarding how the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

At what point during the systems development process should an internal auditor verify that the new application's connectivity to the organization's other systems has been established correctly?

A.

Prior to testing the new application.

B.

During testing of the new application.

C.

During implementation of the new application.

D.

During maintenance of the new application.

According to Porter's model of competitive strategy, which of the following is a generic strategy?

1 Differentiation.

2) Competitive advantage.

3) Focused differentiation.

4) Cost focus.

A.

2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

A manager has difficulty motivating staff to improve productivity, despite establishing a lucrative individual reward system. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the difficulty?

A.

High degree of masculinity.

B.

Low uncertainty avoidance.

C.

High collectivism.

D.

Low long-term orientation.

Which of the following factors would reduce dissatisfaction for a management trainee but would not particularly motivate the trainee?

A.

A sense of achievement.

B.

Promotion.

C.

Recognition.

D.

An incremental increase in salary.

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, internal auditors who are assessing the adequacy of organizational risk management processes should not:

A.

Recognize that organizations use different techniques for managing risk.

B.

Seek assurance that the key objectives of the risk management processes are being met.

C.

Determine and accept the level of risk for the organization.

D.

Treat the evaluation of risk management processes differently from the risk analysis used to plan audit engagements.

Which stage of group development is characterized by a decrease in conflict and hostility among group members and an increase in cohesiveness?

A.

Forming stage.

B.

Norming stage.

C.

Performing stage.

D.

Storming stage.

Which of the following would not impair the objectivity of internal auditor?

A.

Management assurance on risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on behalf of management.

C.

Providing assurance that risks assessed are correctly evaluated.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.