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An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

Which of the following sources of audit evidence is most reliable?

A.

Evidence obtained directly from an untested third party.

B.

Uncorroborated audit evidence obtained indirectly from an employee.

C.

Undocumented audit evidence obtained directly from a manager.

D.

Timely audit evidence obtained directly from a customer.

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors are always new and in training?

A.

Career model.

B.

Center of competence model.

C.

Rotational model.

D.

Hybrid model.

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding. Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment.

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles.

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

Which of the following best exemplifies having effective risk management and internal control processes?

A.

Relevant risk indicators and mitigation plans are in place

B.

All risks are identified and assessed

C.

Business profitability is likely to be achieved

D.

Risk information is communicated to customers and suppliers

Which of the following engagement techniques would be best to meet the objective of denting a personal conflict -of -interest situation affecting an organization’s procurement function?

A.

Inquiry

B.

Analytical review

C.

Observation

D.

Inspection of documents

An internal auditor completed a test of 30 randomly selected accounts. For five of the accounts selected, the auditor was unable to find supporting documentation in the normal place of storage. Which of the following next steps would be most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

A.

Conclude that the test failed because at least 17 percent of the sample items were not supported.

B.

Select five new accounts to replace the ones that were missing supporting documentation.

C.

Expand the sample size to 60 to determine whether the error rate remains the same.

D.

Contact management to determine whether the supporting documentation can be located elsewhere.

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization's risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year's financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following steps should precede the development of audit engagement objectives?

A.

Identification of controls.

B.

Scope establishment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Review of resources.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of implementing a program whereby employees are rotated from other parts of the organization into the internal audit activity?

A.

It provides the internal audit activity with more resourcing options to meet the audit plan

B.

It offers internal auditors the opportunity to learn more about other work areas.

C.

It gives nonauditors a better understanding of the control environment.

D.

It provides an opportunity for the recruitment of employees as permanent internal auditors

What is the primary purpose of creating a preliminary draft audit report?

A.

To save time during final report writing

B.

To meet the Standards requirement for developing a draft report prior to issuing a final report

C.

To use as a tool for communicating with management of the area under review.

D.

To require that management implements solutions to issues identified during the engagement

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?

A.

A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.

B.

Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.

C.

The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.

D.

During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.