Free Practice Questions for AAPC CPC Exam

The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

Procedure Description:

Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.

Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

HCPCS Level II Coding:

J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.

For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.

J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.

For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.

HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).

HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.

The key is the root and suffix:orch/o(or orchi/o) refers to thetestis/testicle, and-ectomymeanssurgical removal. Therefore,orchiectomyis the surgical removal of atesticle(one or both, depending on context). The distractors are nearby male reproductive structures that commonly appear in anatomy questions: thescrotumis the external sac that houses the testes (procedures there might be scrotoplasty or scrotal surgery, not orchiectomy). Theepididymisis the structure attached to the testicle where sperm mature and are stored (removal would be epididymectomy). Theprostateis a gland at the base of the bladder (removal would be prostatectomy). On the CPC exam, terminology questions often use anatomic proximity to tempt you into picking a “nearby” structure—always lock onto the combining form first (orch = testis), then confirm the procedure suffix (-ectomy = removal).

The procedure involved the placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) through the right common femoral artery for a patient with acute MI and severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease.

Procedure Description:

Placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP).

Right common femoral artery approach.

Confirmation of good waveform and securement of the catheter.

CPT® Coding:

33975: Insertion of intra-aortic balloon assist device, percutaneous.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on cardiac procedures.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure described is a craniectomy to access and remove a supratentorial intracerebral hematoma using a suction device.

CPT® Code 61314 is specific for a craniectomy or craniotomy for evacuation of a hematoma, supratentorial (within the upper portion of the brain), and includes any required dural repair and closure. This code precisely describes the procedure performed to remove the hematoma.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 61154 is used for a burr hole procedure for the evacuation of a hematoma, which is a less invasive approach and does not involve a craniectomy.

Code 61313 is for a craniectomy or craniotomy to evacuate an infratentorial hematoma, which is located in the lower portion of the brain (posterior fossa) and is not applicable here.

Code 61312 is for evacuation of an epidural or subdural hematoma and does not apply to an intracerebral hematoma as described in this case.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 61314 is the appropriate code for craniectomy procedures aimed at removing supratentorial intracerebral hematomas, as it covers the full scope of the documented procedure.

Thus, the correct answer is A. 61314.

Chest radiography codes are selected by thenumber of viewsperformed. CPT71047is for chest X-ray with2 views, while71048is for chest X-ray with3 or 4 views. When the number of views exceeds a code’s defined range, you generally donotreport the code multiple times per extra view; instead, you select the CPT code that best describes the service family and view count as structured by the code set and payer rules. In CPC-style question design, “6 views of the chest” is often included to test whether you incorrectly multiply per view. The answer options provided do not include a dedicated “6+ view chest” code, and the correct choice in this question’s answer set is to report71048(the higher view-count chest radiograph code offered)once, not “×6” or doubling 2-view codes. Option A and B reflect incorrect per-view/per-unit reporting. Therefore, within the provided choices, the correct answer is71048.

Pressure ulcer excision with bone involvement → CPT 15937 (sacral, with ostectomy)

Stage 4 pressure ulcer → L89.156 (sacral region with necrosis of bone)

This scenario describes an anterior discectomy and arthroplasty at two levels (L3-L4 and L5-S1) using artificial discs. CPT® code 22857 describes total disc arthroplasty (artificial disc), anterior approach, including discectomy to prepare interspace (other than for decompression), single interspace, lumbar. Since the procedure was performed at two levels, the code should be reported twice.

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

59821 – Induced abortion, by vaginal suppository, amniotic fluid injection, or other medical means

Used for fetal demise at ≥14 weeks gestation

Labor was medically induced and fetus delivered

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

O36.4XX0 – Maternal care for intrauterine death, not applicable or unspecified

Correct maternal record diagnosis

Z3A.19 – 19 weeks gestation

Required per ICD-10-CM guidelines for obstetric encounters

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / D – ICD-9 code (002.1) is invalid

C – Missing required gestational age code

Pregnancy guidelines require O codes first.

O98.513 = COVID-19 infection complicating pregnancy, third trimester

U07.1 = COVID-19

Z3A.32 = 32 weeks gestation

Symptoms (SOB, fever) are not coded separately when integral to COVID-19.

Correct sequencing makes A correct.

69200 – Removal of foreign body from external auditory canal; without anesthesia

Correct for simple removal using forceps

Patient tolerated procedure without anesthesia

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

69110 / 69105 – Middle ear procedures

69205 – Removal with general anesthesia