Free Practice Questions for AAPC CPC Exam

Procedure: Visual field examination of both eyes using Goldmann perimeter testing with four isopters.

CPT® Code:

92082: This code is for visual field examination with intermediate examination.

ICD-10-CM Code:

G43.009: Migraine without aura, not intractable, without status migrainosus.

Code Selection Justification: The visual field exam method and complexity align with 92082. The patient ' s diagnosis of non-intractable migraine without aura is coded as G43.009.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

This question tests two things: theextentof vulvectomy and the correct diagnosis code forVIN II. VIN II corresponds tomoderate vulvar dysplasia, which is coded asN90.1. VIN III would map to more severe dysplasia/carcinoma in situ-type coding; that is not what is documented here. For the procedure, the surgeon removed aportionof the vulva (less than 80%), including skin and deep subcutaneous tissue, which describes apartial (simple) vulvectomyrather than a radical vulvectomy. CPT56625represents asimple partial vulvectomy(partial removal). CPT56630is forradical vulvectomy, which is more extensive and not supported by the “less than 80%” partial description. Option D pairs an incorrect diagnosis code, and option C uses a diagnosis code that doesn’t match VIN II. Therefore, the correct combination is56625 with N90.1.

For a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis performed during the same surgical session, the correct CPT® codes are:

1. 19303-50: This code represents a complete mastectomy (removal of breast tissue) performed bilaterally (indicated by the -50 modifier).

2. 19340-50: This code is for the immediate insertion of a breast prosthesis following mastectomy, also performed bilaterally.

Explanation of other options:

A. 19303-50, 19342-50: Incorrect because 19342 is for the insertion of a breast implant, which differs from a prosthesis.

B. 19305-50, 19340-50: 19305 describes a modified radical mastectomy, which is more extensive than what is documented here.

C. 19325-50: This code represents a breast augmentation procedure, not a mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 19303-50, 19340-50, which accurately describes a bilateral mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.

The key phrase is “remove the sequestered section of dead infected fragment bone”, which is a sequestrectomy performed for osteomyelitis.

23172 describes sequestrectomy of the scapula (shoulder blade).Therefore, C is correct.

This is areturn to the operating room during the postoperative period(two months after the original fracture repair) by thesame surgeon, and the new surgery is related to the original condition/hardware, so a postoperative modifier is needed. The scenario describes a complication-related problem (hardware displacement with malunion) requiring operative correction, which aligns withmodifier -78(unplanned return to the OR for a related procedure during the postoperative period). Diagnosis coding includes a complication of internal orthopedic device:T84.122Acorresponds todisplacement of internal fixation device of bones of forearm(initial encounter for the complication). The fracture condition being treated is amalunionof the right radius shaft; malunion is captured with the fracture code and the 7th characterPfor subsequent encounter for fracture with malunion:S52.301P. Among options,25405-78is the correct procedural selection provided for repair of malunion in this context (as tested by the item), paired withT84.122AandS52.301P. Therefore, optionBis correct.

To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

History:

The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.

Examination:

The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).

Medical Decision Making:

The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.

Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.

Why other options are incorrect:

99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.

99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn ' t support this level of service.

For initial fracture care of a closed scaphoid fracture, code 25622 is used, which includes treatment and initial casting. The application of the cast is part of the fracture care and is not reported separately. CPT® guidelines specify that casting or strapping performed as part of the fracture care is included in the fracture care code.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Musculoskeletal System.

Medical terms often consist of a root word and a suffix.

Hepat/o = liver

-itis = inflammation

Therefore, hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver.

The incorrect options refer to inflammation of other body parts:

Dermatitis – inflammation of the skin

Gastritis – inflammation of the stomach

Arthritis – inflammation of the joints

Hence, the correct answer is C. Hepatitis.

For the procedure involving access to the subclavian vein and advancing a catheter to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging, the following codes are used:

36010 for the catheter placement.

75825-26 for the supervision and interpretation of the imaging.

Modifier -26 indicates the professional component of the radiological supervision and interpretation.

The procedure is apercutaneous needle biopsy of the liver, which is reported withCPT 47000(needle biopsy of liver; percutaneous). Because the biopsy is performed withCT guidance, you also report the appropriate imaging guidance code77012(CT guidance for needle placement). The number of core specimens (four) doesnotchange the CPT reporting here; you code the biopsy service, not each specimen. For diagnosis, the biopsy is performed to evaluate aliver mass, which supports reporting the sign/symptom/abnormal finding code provided in the options (R16.0) rather than a definitive benign neoplasm code, because “rule out benign hepatic adenoma” is not a confirmed diagnosis. Options A–C incorrectly assignD13.4(benign neoplasm of liver) despite the condition being unconfirmed in the question stem, and/or include unrelated codes. Therefore, the correct coding combination is47000, 77012, R16.0.