Free Practice Questions for AAPC CPC Exam

Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy: Condition requiring decompressive surgery.

Bilateral posterior laminectomy, facetectomies, foraminotomies: Procedures performed to decompress nerve roots.

Interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7: Specific levels where the procedures were performed.

CPT code 63045 is used for the initial cervical laminectomy, and 63048 is for each additional segment. The combination covers the decompression across two interspaces.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient delivered her second child vaginally after having a previous cesarean delivery for her first child. This scenario describes a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC).

CPT® Code 59610 is specific for a vaginal delivery after a previous cesarean delivery, including antepartum and postpartum care with the same provider, which matches this case exactly.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 59410 covers only vaginal delivery with postpartum care but does not include a history of previous cesarean delivery, so it is not appropriate for a VBAC.

Code 59400 is for routine vaginal delivery with antepartum and postpartum care but, again, does not account for a previous cesarean, so it does not apply in this VBAC scenario.

Code 59614 is for a VBAC but does not include antepartum care, making it incomplete for this scenario since the question specifies that antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care were provided by the same provider.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines indicate that 59610 should be used for a complete VBAC service that includes antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care by the same provider.

Therefore, based on CPT® guidelines, the correct answer is B. 59610.

Anesthesia CPT®:

00120 – Anesthesia for ear procedures

AD modifier:

Anesthesiologist medically directing > 4 CRNAs

P3 – Severe systemic disease

Diagnosis Code:

H90.41 – Sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral, right ear

Why others are incorrect:

AA – Personally performed

QX / QY – Incorrect direction model

H90.5 – Unspecified hearing loss

The adenoids, tonsils, appendix, and spleen are all part of the lymphatic system, which plays a crucial role in immune function and the filtration of pathogens. These organs contribute to the body ' s defense by trapping and eliminating bacteria and other pathogens.

Adenoids and tonsils are lymphatic tissues located in the throat and help prevent infection by filtering pathogens from inhaled or ingested particles.

The appendix contains lymphoid tissue and is thought to play a role in gut immunity.

The spleen filters blood, removing old or damaged blood cells and producing lymphocytes for immune response.

The other options are unrelated:

B. Gastrointestinal: Involved in digestion, but not specifically immune response.

C. Cardiovascular: Involved in blood circulation, not immune response.

D. Nervous: Coordinates sensory and motor functions, unrelated to lymphatic tissue.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Lymphatic.

CPT70450describes aCT of the head/brain without contrast. When aradiology facilityperforms the technical portion (scanner, technologist, supplies) and theprovider only interprets and reportsthe study, the provider bills theprofessional componentusing modifier-26. That is exactly what the vignette describes: the radiology facility performed the scan, and the provider received images and provided the interpretation—so the provider reports70450-26. Reporting70450alone would imply billing the global service (professional + technical), which would be incorrect because the provider did not supply the equipment/technical resources. Modifier-TCis used to bill thetechnical component, which would be reported by the facility, not the interpreting provider in this scenario. Modifier-26-TCtogether is not appropriate because it would contradict itself (professional and technical simultaneously). CPC exam tip: always determinewho performedthe technical work andwho interpreted; then use-26for interpretation-only billing.

The epididymis is a structure attached to the testes that stores and transports sperm.

It is part of the male reproductive system, not the urinary system.

This concept falls under anatomy and physiology, a core CPC exam domain.

A tympanoplasty repairs aperforated tympanic membrane. The key phrase “doesnotremove the mastoid” means this istympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, which is correctly represented by69631in the answer set. Codes that include mastoid work (or represent different tympanoplasty variants) are incorrect because the documentation explicitly states the mastoid was not removed. Diagnosis coding should reflect both thechronic otitis mediaand theperforation. In the options,H66.92represents otitis media (as offered) andH72.92represents perforation of the tympanic membrane (as offered). Although the clinical story specifies the left ear, the provided diagnosis options do not include laterality; on CPC-style questions, you choose the best match among the answer choices. Therefore, the correct combination within this question’s choices is69631 with H66.92 and H72.92, matching tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy plus the documented conditions.

The patient is an established patient presenting with bilateral thyroid nodules and has a detailed history and examination performed.

Procedure Description:

Detailed history and examination of bilateral thyroid nodules.

Review of systems and physical examination.

Assessment and plan for a percutaneous biopsy.

CPT® Coding:

99214: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and moderate medical decision making.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.

Malignant lesion destruction → CPT 17260–17286

Trunk/extremities

0.6–1.0 cm → 17261

1.1–2.0 cm → 17262

Both lesions are reported separately.

In this case, a CRNA provided anesthesia for an urgent endoscopic procedure. To select the appropriate codes, we consider both the anesthesia code for the procedures performed and the modifiers relevant to the CRNA’s role and the patient’s physical status:

1. 00813: This CPT® code covers " Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to duodenum, " which is appropriate since the colonoscopy extended to the ileum and into the lower duodenum. 00731 (anesthesia for upper GI endoscopy) would not fully apply, as the main procedure targeted lower intestinal areas as well.

2. QZ Modifier: Indicates the anesthesia was performed by a CRNA without medical direction by an anesthesiologist, which aligns with the scenario where the CRNA independently administered anesthesia.

3. P3 Modifier: Reflects the physical status of " severe systemic disease " for this patient, as she has both end-stage renal failure and myelodysplastic syndrome.

4. 99100: This code is added to reflect " special anesthesia circumstances " given the patient’s extreme frailty (platelet count of 3,000), which warrants additional consideration.

5. 99140: Used for emergency conditions, which applies here due to the urgent nature of the bleeding investigation.

Thus, 00813-QZ-P3, 99100, 99140 accurately reflects the anesthesia services provided by the CRNA in this emergency scenario.