Free Practice Questions for PTCB PTCE Exam

Pharmacy technicians must notify the pharmacistimmediatelyif a patient has an allergy to a prescribed medication.Dispensing an allergenic drug could cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis.

Check for allergies and drug interactionsin the patient’s profile.

Alert the pharmacistif an allergy is detected.

Ensure proper labelingfor allergy warnings.

(A) To obtain the patient’s medication history❌Incorrect – Technicians can review medication history, but pharmacists must intervene forallergies or significant concerns.

(B) If the patient is allergic to the prescribed medication✅Correct – An allergy could be life-threatening and requires pharmacist intervention.

(C) To clarify the date and time of the order❌Incorrect – Technicians can check the order date, but this is not a critical pharmacist intervention.

(D) If a patient has never taken the prescribed medication before❌Incorrect – Whilefirst-time medication use requires counseling, it does not always require pharmacist intervention unless there aredrug interactions, high-risk medications, or allergies.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Allergy Checking Protocols:https://www.ismp.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Processing & Pharmacist Consultation

Key Responsibilities of a Pharmacy Technician in Medication Order Entry:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Apidra (insulin glulisine)is arapid-acting insulinthat must bestored between 36°F and 46°F (2°C to 8°C)in the refrigerator. If frozen,it is no longer usableand shouldnever be thawed or dispensed. The best course of action is toreturn it to the distributorto ensure medication integrity and patient safety.

A. Thawed and stored in a refrigerator→ Incorrect;frozen insulin loses its potencyand shouldnot be used.

B. Sent to the prescriber→ Incorrect; the prescriber does not handle medication storage or replacements.

C. Dispensed to a patient→ Incorrect;frozen insulin is ineffectiveand could harm the patient.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Insulin Storage and Handling Guidelines

USP <797> Sterile Preparations – Storage Conditions

Manufacturer Storage Requirements for Apidra (Sanofi-Aventis)

Pristiq (desvenlafaxine)andVenlafaxine (Effexor)belong to the same class ofserotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They both work by inhibiting the reuptake ofserotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE), increasing their levels in the synaptic cleft to enhance neurotransmission, which is effective in treatingmajor depressive disorder (MDD).

A. Valacyclovir→ Incorrect; valacyclovir is anantiviralused to treatherpes simplex and varicella-zoster infections.It inhibits viral DNA replication, not neurotransmitter reuptake.

B. Varenicline→ Incorrect; varenicline (Chantix) is apartial nicotinic receptor agonistused forsmoking cessation, not an SNRI.

D. Verapamil→ Incorrect; verapamil is acalcium channel blocker (CCB)used forhypertension and arrhythmias, which has no relation to antidepressant mechanisms.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Nervous System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Desvenlafaxine and Venlafaxine

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

Experiencingphotosensitivity(increased sensitivity to sunlight) as a result of takingciprofloxacinis an example of anadverse drug reaction (ADR). Thisunexpectedandundesirableeffect occurs in some individuals due tofluoroquinolones causing cellular damage from UV exposure.

A. Intended effect→ Incorrect; the intended effect of ciprofloxacin isbacterial infection treatment, not photosensitivity.

C. Synergistic effect→ Incorrect; asynergistic effectoccurs whentwo drugs work togetherto produce a greater effect, which is not the case here.

D. Anaphylactic reaction→ Incorrect;anaphylaxisis asevere allergic reactionwithrespiratory distress, hypotension, and swelling, not photosensitivity.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Side Effects)

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Ciprofloxacin

FDA Fluoroquinolone Safety Warnings

TheFDA classifies recalls into three levels, withClass III being the least severe:

Class I Recall→Most severe→ Issued when a drugmay cause serious harm or death.

Class II Recall→Moderate severity→ The drug may causetemporary or medically reversible adverse effects.

Class III Recall→Least severe→ The productis unlikely to cause harm but violates FDA regulations(e.g., labeling errors, minor packaging issues).

A. Is issued when there is a reasonable probability that the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death.❌→Incorrect

Describes a Class I recall, not Class III.

B. Is initiated by the FDA if a manufacturer has violated the adulteration provisions of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).❌→Incorrect

FDA action due to adulteration typically leads to Class I or Class II recalls, depending on severity.

C. Occurs when a product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences.❌→Incorrect

Describes a Class II recall, not Class III.

FDA Drug Recall Guidelines– Defines Class I, II, and III recalls.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers recall classifications and pharmacy responsibilities.

FDA Enforcement Report– Lists real-world examples of Class III recalls (e.g.,mislabeling, incorrect expiration dates).

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

TheU.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)requires aMedication Guide (MedGuide)to be provided when dispensing certain medications that have significant safety concerns.Zyprexa (Olanzapine), anatypical antipsychotic, requires aMedication Guidedue to serious risks such as:

Increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis

Metabolic side effects(e.g., weight gain, hyperglycemia, and dyslipidemia)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

A. Zafirlukast→ Incorrect; while used forasthma(leukotriene receptor antagonist), it doesnot require a Medication Guide.

B. Zestril (Lisinopril)→ Incorrect; anACE inhibitorfor hypertension, it doesnot require a Medication Guide.

C. Zinc→ Incorrect; adietary supplementthat does not require a Medication Guide.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Medication Guide Requirements for Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Patient Counseling)

According tofederal law,a reverse distributor must issue a DEA Form 222 (or electronic equivalent) when a pharmacy requests the destruction of a Schedule II controlled substance.

Reverse distributorshandle the return and disposal ofexpired, damaged, or unusable controlled substances.

DEA Form 222 (or CSOS, the electronic equivalent) is required for Schedule II drugs.

Hydrocodone with acetaminophen (e.g., Norco, Vicodin)is aSchedule II controlled substance, requiringDEA Form 222for reverse distribution.

A. Acetaminophen with codeine❌→Schedule III

Does not require DEA Form 222; instead, DEA Form 41 is used for disposal.

C. Promethazine with codeine❌→Schedule V

Lower abuse potential; does not require DEA Form 222.

D. Pseudoephedrine with ibuprofen❌→Not a controlled substance

Pseudoephedrine is regulated under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), not the DEA controlled substance schedules.

DEA Controlled Substances Act (CSA)– Confirms thatSchedule II drugs require DEA Form 222 for reverse distribution.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers controlled substances and reverse distribution requirements.

DEA Diversion Control Division Guidelines– Listshydrocodone as a Schedule II drug requiring Form 222 for disposal.

Understanding DEA Form 222 and Reverse Distribution:Why is Hydrocodone with Acetaminophen the Correct Answer?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

When entering prescription information into a pharmacy computer system,using leading zeros helps prevent medication dosing errorsby clearly specifying the correct dose.

What Are Leading Zeros?Aleading zerois azero placed before a decimal pointto prevent misinterpretation.

✅Correct:0.5 mg(clearly means half a milligram)

❌Incorrect:.5 mg(could be mistaken for 5 mg, leading to a10× overdose).

A. Allergies❌→Important, butnot directly related to dosing errors.

C. Insurance Information❌→Unrelated to medication dosing safety.

D. Contraindications❌→Relevant to medication selection, but not specific to preventing dosing errors.

ISMP Best Practices for Medication Safety– Recommends usingleading zerosto prevent dosing mistakes.

Joint Commission "Do Not Use" List– Warns against missing leading zeros in prescriptions.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers prescription entry and error prevention strategies.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Alot numberis a unique identifier assigned to a specific batch of a medication during manufacturing.

TheNational Drug Code (NDC)andserial numberare different from the lot number.

On medication stock bottles, the lot number is often preceded by"(10)", which is present in this case:

(10)ABC123→This represents the lot number.

B. 55555444422→ This appears to be aGTIN (Global Trade Item Number), which identifies the product but is not the lot number.

C. 051526→ This could represent a manufacturer’s internal code or part of the packaging details, but not the lot number.

D. 11262026→ This follows the(21) identifier, which represents theexpiration date (November 26, 2026).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Labeling and Lot Numbers

FDA Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)– Provides guidance on tracking drug batches.

USP Chapter <1079> Good Storage and Distribution Practices– Covers stock bottle labeling and identification.

Why Other Answers Are Incorrect?Pharmacy Technician References: