Free Practice Questions for PRMIA 8010 Exam

Collateral, limits to avoid credit exposure concentrations, termination rights based upon credit ratings, third party guarantees and credit derivatives are all tools or instruments that financial institutions use to manage their credit risk. A cumulative accuracy plot measures the accuracy of ratings, and is not a tool for managing credit risk. Therefore Choice 'b' represents the correct answer.

The CCAR is a supervisory mechanism adopted by the US Federal Reserve Bank to assess capital adequacy for bank holding companies it supervises. Itwas not a concept introduced by the international Basel framework.

The other three were indeed rules introduced by Basel 2.5, which was ultimately subsumed into Basel III.

Stressed VaR is just the standard 99%/10 day VaR, calculated with theassumption that relevant market factors are under stress.

The Incremental Risk Charge (IRC) is an estimate of default and migration risk of unsecuritized credit products in the

trading book. (Though this may sound like a credit risk term, it relates to market risk - for example, a bond rated A being downgraded to BBB. In the old days, the banking book where loans to customers are held was the primary source of credit risk, but with OTC trading and complex products the trading book also now holds a good dealof credit risk. Both IRC and CRM account for these.)

While IRC considers only non-securitized products, the CRM (Comprehensive Risk Model) considers securitized products such as tranches, CDOs, and correlation based instruments.

The IRC, SVaR and CRMcomplement standard VaR by covering risks that are not included in a standard VaR model. Their results are therefore added to the VaR for capital adequacy determination.

This is a tricky question in the sense norisk management professional can be expected to know the answer to this one unless they have read Chapter 2 of the PRMIA handbook. So this question appears purely for the sake of something you would need to know purely for the sake of the exam.

PRMIA's handbook classifies governance sructures as reactive, preventative and active. Reactive structures involve monitoring signals after the event leading to corrective actions. Preventative structures are forward looking and anticipate issues before they arise. Active structures include considerations of operational efficiency and not just governance. All other answers are made up phrases and are incorrect.

In reality, corporations employ all structures together without worrying about the boundary between the three, and these distinctions do not exist except in textbooks.

The correct answer is Choice 'c'. The following is a brief description of the major approaches available to model credit risk, and the analysis that underlies them:

1. CreditMetrics: based on the credit migration framework. Considers the probability of migration to other credit ratings and the impact of such migrations on portfolio value.

2. CreditPortfolio View: similar to CreditMetrics, but adds the impact of the business cycle to the evaluation.

3. The contingent claims approach: uses option theory by considering a debt as a put option on the assets of the firm.

4. KMV's EDF (expected default frequency) based approach: relies on EDFs and distance to default as a measure of credit risk.

5. CreditRisk+: Also called the 'actuarial approach', considers default as a binary event that either happens or does not happen. This approach does not consider the loss of value from deterioration in credit quality (unless the deterioration implies default).

Statement I is true - component VaR for individual assets in the portfolio add up to the total VaR for the portfolio. This property makes component VaR extremely useful for risk disaggregation and allocation.

Stateent II is incorrect, the incremental VaRs for the positions in a portfolio do not add up to the portfolio VaR, in fact their sum would be greater.

Statement III is correct. Marginal VaR for an asset or position in the portfolio is by definition the change in the VaR as a result of a $1 change in that position. Incremental VaR is the change in the VaR for a portfolio from a new position added to the portfolio - and if that position is $1, it would be identical to the marginal VaR.

Statement IV is correct, VaR is sub-additive due to the diversification effect. Adding up the VaRs for all the positions in a portfolio will add up to more than the VaR for the portfolio as a whole (unless all the positions are 100% correlated, which effectively would mean they are all identical securities which means the portfolio has only one asset).

Statement V is in incorrect. As explained for Statement I above, component VaR adds up to the VaR for the portfolio.

All four data sources are expected to be utilized as inputs as appropriate for operational risk calculations under the advanced measurement approach. Of these, the last one, BEICF, is slightly different from the rest as it does not yield data points that becomethe basis of curve fitting or other statistical computions underlying capital calculations. It includes items such as KRIs, risk assessments etc and allow the risk manager to assess the qualitative aspects of loss data.

Marginal VaR of a component of a portfolio is the change in the portfolio VaR from a $1 change in the value of the component. It helps a risk analyst who may be trying to identify the best way to influence VaR by changingthe components of the portfolio. Marginal VaR is also important for calculating component VaR (for VaR disaggregation), as component VaR is equal to the marginal VaR multiplied by the value of the component in the portfolio.

Marginal VaR is by definitionthe derivative of the portfolio value with respect to the component i. This is reflected in Choice 'a' above. Using the definitions and relationships between correlation, covariance, beta and volatility of the portfolio and/or the component, we can show that the other two choices are also equivalent to Choice 'a'.

Therefore all the choices present are correct.

Under the contingent claims approach, a firm will default on its debt when the value of its assets fall to less than the face value of the debt. Debt holders can protect themselves against such an event by buying a put on the assets of the firm, where the strike price is equal to the value of the debt. In other words, Risky Debt + Put on the firm's assets = Risk free debt. This is because if the value of the assets is greater thanthe value of the debt, they will be paid in full. If the value of the assets is lower than the value of the debt, they will exercise the put and be paid in full.

Therefore the value of the put on the firm's assets with a strike equal to the value ofthe debt represents the cost of eliminating credit risk. Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

Note that it is improbable that a put on the firm's assets is available in real life to debt holders. However, the same effect can be synthetically achieved by usingthe shares of the firm as a proxy for its assets, and shorting an appropriate number of shares. Such a synthetic put will require frequent readjustments.

The change in the price of a security that follows a Weiner process isdetermined by its standard deviation and expected return. To get the price itself, we need to add this change in price to the current price. Therefore the future price in a Weiner process is determined by all three of current price, expected return and standard deviation.

With the passage of time, the range of possible values the FX contract can take increases. Therefore the maximumvalue of the contract, which is when the credit risk would be maximum, would be at maturity. (Note that this is different than an interest rate swap whose value at maturity approaches zero.) Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer and the others are incorrect.