Free Practice Questions for Insurance Licensing Life-Producer Exam

Purpose of a deferred annuity.

A deferred annuity is designed primarily for long-term accumulation, most commonly for retirement income planning.

Two phases of a deferred annuity.

Accumulation period: Premiums are paid and interest accumulates on a tax-deferred basis.

Annuity (payout) period: Income payments begin.

Timing of income benefits.

Unlike immediate annuities, deferred annuities are intended to begin income at a future date chosen by the owner, often many years later (e.g., at retirement age).

Evaluate each option.

A. Upon death

Incorrect. Death benefits may be paid, but this is not the intent of income benefits.

B. Upon beneficiary request

Incorrect. Beneficiaries receive death benefits, not scheduled annuity income.

C. Within several weeks

This describes immediate annuities, not deferred annuities.

D. On a specified date often years after issuance

Correct. This reflects the core purpose of a deferred annuity.

Maryland suitability relevance.

Maryland requires producers to recommend annuities consistent with the consumer’s time horizon and income needs, which is why deferred annuities are matched to future income goals.

Conclusion.

Deferred annuity income is intended to begin on a specified future date, often years later.

An insurable interest exists when the policyholder benefits more from the insured’s life than their death.

Benefiting from the other person’s continued life (C): Correct. This applies to relationships where there is a legal, financial, or familial dependence.

Gaining economically by the death of the other person (A): Mischaracterizes insurable interest; financial gain from death without a legitimate relationship is unethical and illegal.

Continuing on good terms (B) and seeing the person survive (D): Do not constitute insurable interest under Maryland law.

Personal responsibility of licensees.

Maryland places the responsibility for accurate licensing records directly on the licensee.

Why this duty cannot be delegated.

License status affects:

Legal authority to transact insurance

Receipt of regulatory notices

Compliance with continuing education requirements

Evaluate each option.

A. The licensee

Correct. The licensee must notify the MIA within the required timeframe.

B. Appointing insurer

Insurers may update appointments, but not personal data.

C. Managing general agent

Has no authority over individual licensing records.

D. MIA staff

The MIA maintains records but does not initiate changes.

Regulatory consequence.

Failure to report changes may result in administrative discipline or missed compliance deadlines.

Conclusion.

The licensee is responsible for reporting changes.

Maryland’s Unfair Claim Settlement Practices standards.

Maryland law requires insurers to:

Promptly investigate claims

Act in good faith

Attempt fair and equitable settlements when liability is clear

Analyze each option carefully.

A. Compromise settlements when facts are in question

This is a legitimate and encouraged claims practice.

B. Denying coverage after timely investigation

Permissible if the denial is based on policy terms.

C. Failing to promptly investigate and settle legitimate claims

This is a classic unfair claims settlement practice under Maryland law.

D. Compelling litigation when a real dispute exists

Allowed when coverage is genuinely disputed.

Good-faith obligation.

Delays or failures to settle valid claims undermine the insurer’s duty of good faith and fair dealing.

Regulatory consequences.

Such conduct may lead to:

Administrative penalties

Market conduct actions

Civil bad-faith exposure

Conclusion.

Failure to promptly investigate and settle valid claims is an unfair claims settlement practice.

Qualified retirement plans, such as 401(k) and pension plans, offer significant tax advantages for employers:

Tax-deductible contributions (B): Employer contributions to qualified plans are deductible as business expenses, reducing taxable income.

Exclusive benefit for key employees (A): Not allowed under IRS rules, as qualified plans must follow non-discrimination requirements.

Funds available for business needs (C): Incorrect, as plan funds are held in trust and cannot be used for business operations.

Rewarding selected employees (D): Qualified plans must comply with anti-discrimination rules, so rewards must benefit all eligible employees.

Accelerated benefits are often triggered by the inability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs), which are standard measures of functional capacity.

Dressing (A), Eating (B), Bathing (C): Correctly identified as ADLs used to assess eligibility for benefits.

Speaking (D): Not classified as an ADL under Maryland insurance definitions or long-term care benefit triggers.

Maryland law requires insurance licensees to complete continuing education (CE) every two years (B) to maintain their licenses:

CE ensures that agents remain informed about current laws, practices, and products.

Each year (A): Too frequent for most state requirements, including Maryland.

Every three years (C): Exceeds Maryland’s regulatory timeframe.

No requirement (D): Incorrect, as CE is mandatory for license renewal.

Definition of insurable risk.

An insurable risk must meet certain criteria so insurers can predict losses and set premiums fairly.

Required elements of an insurable risk.

Accidental loss: Loss must be unintended and fortuitous.

Definite and measurable loss: The amount and timing of loss must be determinable.

Large number of similar exposures: Allows insurers to use the law of large numbers.

Non-catastrophic to the insurer: Losses must not affect all policyholders at once.

Why speculative risk is excluded.

Speculative risks involve the possibility of gain or loss (e.g., gambling or investing).

Insurance only covers pure risks, which involve the possibility of loss or no loss, but no gain.

Evaluate each option.

A. Speculative risk

Incorrect for insurability and therefore the correct answer.

B. Accidental loss

Required element.

C. Large number of similar units

Required for actuarial predictability.

D. Ability to measure the loss

Required to determine claim amounts.

Conclusion.

Speculative risk is not insurable, making option A correct.

Purpose of the free look period.

The free look period allows the policyowner to review the policy after delivery.

Consumer protection function.

Maryland law requires a minimum free look period (commonly 10 days).

If cancelled within this time, the policyowner receives a full refund.

Why the other options are incorrect.

Discovery period: Related to claims-made policies.

Probationary period: Often associated with health insurance waiting periods.

Grace period: Allows late premium payment, not cancellation.

Conclusion.

The correct provision is the free look period.

Maryland law allows insurers to consider medical conditions (A) as part of the underwriting process, provided it is done fairly and within legal boundaries.

Race (B), Gender (C), and Creed (D): Discrimination based on these factors is strictly prohibited under Maryland’s anti-discrimination laws and the Unfair Trade Practices Act.

Insurers must comply with state and federal regulations, ensuring underwriting decisions are based on actuarially justified factors, such as health and lifestyle, rather than prohibited discriminatory criteria.