Free Practice Questions for ITIL ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam

The purpose of the release management practice in ITIL 4 is to make new and changed services and features available for use by ensuring a controlled and efficient release process. According to theITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument, the purpose is defined as:"The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features available for use"(Section 2.1). This focuses on delivering value to service consumers by enabling them to use improved or new services quickly and effectively.

Option A focuses on the service operations team performing tests, which is part of the release process but not the primary value perceived by service consumers.

Option B mentions reducing business losses for the operations team, which is an internal benefit, not a direct value for consumers.

Option C aligns directly with the purpose: "the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available" reflects the consumer-facing value of release management—ensuring they can benefit from new or improved services promptly.

Option D focuses on mitigating the service provider’s risks, which is a provider-centric benefit, not a consumer-focused value statement.

Thus, the correct answer is C, as it directly addresses the value to service consumers by emphasizing the availability and usability of improved services, aligning with the ITIL 4 definition of release management’s purpose.

Third parties, such as suppliers or vendors, often play a role in the execution of releases, especially when they provide components or services involved in the release. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Performing a release according to an agreed model often involves dependencies on third parties, such as suppliers providing software updates, infrastructure, or support services, which need to be integrated during the release execution"(Section 3.4).

Option A (Release management alignment with other practices) is an internal coordination activity, less likely to directly involve third parties.

Option B (Identifying an applicable model) is a planning activity typically handled internally by the release manager.

Option C (Performing a release according to an agreed model) directly involves executing the release, which often requires third-party components or services, creating a dependency.

Option D (Verifying a release) may involve third-party tools but is less dependent on their active participation compared to execution.

The correct answer is C, as performing the release is the activity most likely to depend on third parties.

Value stream analysis in ITIL 4 helps identify inefficiencies and dependencies in processes like release management. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Reflecting on the ‘as is’ value stream map allows organizations to understand the current state, including dependencies and impacts on business processes and IT systems, which can reveal gaps in information that lead to delays or failures"(Section 4.3).

Option A (Creating a ‘to be’ value stream map) focuses on designing the future state, which comes after understanding the current state.

Option B (Reflecting on the ‘as is’ value stream map) is the correct step to understand current impacts and dependencies, identifying the root cause of delays and repeats.

Option C (Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis) is an initial step but doesn’t directly address understanding impacts.

Option D (Identifying the workflow steps) is part of mapping but doesn’t emphasize reflection on impacts and dependencies.

The correct answer is B, as reflecting on the current value stream map helps uncover the missing information about impacts.

TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates"(Section 3.2.3).

Option A (A ‘pull’ approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.

Option B (A ‘push’ approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.

Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn’t specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).

The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

Automating the verification of release success involves tracking the performance and stability of the released services. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Monitoring and event management tools can automate the verification of release success by tracking system performance and detecting anomalies post-release, ensuring the release meets its objectives"(Section 4.2).

Option A (Monitoring and event management tools) is correct, as these tools can automatically check system health and performance after a release, replacing manual checks.

Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools) focuses on process coordination, not post-release verification.

Option C (Enterprise architecture tools) is used for dependency mapping, not release verification.

Option D (Analysis and reporting tools) provides retrospective insights but doesn’t automate real-time verification.

The correct answer is A, as monitoring tools are best suited for automating release verification.