Free Practice Questions for CSI IFC Exam

For money market funds, performance reporting differs from other mutual funds because the NAVPS is relatively fixed.

Instead of reporting NAVPS, financial sources publish the current yield and effective yield.

The current yield is calculated based on the most recent seven-day yield, expressed as an annualized percentage.

The effective yield compounds the current yield over a year for comparison with other investments.

Thus, the correct answer is Current yield.

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The answer that you should tell Lior is that dividend funds tend to be less volatile and lower risk than equity funds. A dividend fund is a type of equity fund that invests primarily in dividend-paying stocks, which are shares of companies that distribute a portion of their earnings to shareholders on a regular basis. A dividend fund provides income and capital appreciation to investors, as well as tax advantages for eligible dividends paid by Canadian corporations. A dividend fund tends to be less volatile and lower risk than an equity fund that invests in non-dividend-paying stocks or growth stocks, which are shares of companies that reinvest their earnings into expanding their business rather than paying dividends. This is because dividend-paying stocks are usually issued by well-established and profitable companies that have stable cash flows and earnings, which make them more resilient to market fluctuations and economic downturns. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what you should tell Lior. The other options are not correct or relevant to what you should tell Lior. Option A is false because equity funds are not more appropriate than dividend funds if Lior requires a steady flow of income; rather, dividend funds are more suitable for income-oriented investors who want to receive regular dividends from their investments. Option B is false because dividend funds do not generate tax-preferred income while income from equity funds is fully taxable; rather, both types of funds generate taxable income for investors, but eligible dividends from Canadian corporations may qualify for a lower tax rate than other types of income due to the dividend tax credit. Option D is false because equity funds do not hold common shares while dividend funds hold only preferred shares; rather, both types of funds hold common shares, but dividend funds focus on common shares that pay dividends, while equity funds may also hold common shares that do not pay dividends or pay low dividends. References: [Dividend Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Equity Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Dividend Tax Credit | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

 Dollar-cost averaging is a strategy that involves investing equal amounts of money at regular intervals, regardless of the price of the security. By using dollar-cost averaging, investors may lower their average cost per share and reduce the impact of volatility on their portfolios. However, this strategy does not guarantee a better purchase price than making a lump-sum purchase. In this case, David got his 500 units at a higher price than the lump sum price he would have paid. His average cost per unit was $14.65, while the lump sum price was $14.10. Therefore, D is the correct answer. References: What Is Dollar-Cost Averaging?, What Is Dollar Cost Averaging?, Dollar-Cost Averaging: Definition and Examples

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client.

Suitability ensures that recommendations align with the client’s unique situation and investment objectives, based on their personal and financial circumstances. The feedback from the document states:

"Suitability means ensuring that all recommendations are appropriate for the client’s unique situation and investment objectives. It also means that recommendations are based on a personal and financial knowledge of the client and knowledge of the investment products being recommended."

The statement that is correct about Maalik’s identification requirements is option A. According to Section 7 of the Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA), registered firms and individuals must report any suspicious transactions or attempted transactions to FINTRAC, which is Canada’s financial intelligence unit that collects, analyzes, and discloses information related to money laundering and terrorist financing activities. A suspicious transaction or attempted transaction is one that there are reasonable grounds to suspect that it is related to a money laundering or terrorist financing offence. Therefore, if Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he must report the matter to his dealer, who must report it to FINTRAC within 30 days of making the determination. The other statements are not correct about Maalik’s identification requirements. Option B is false because Maalik does not need to report John as a PEFP to his dealer; rather, he must take reasonable measures to determine whether John is a PEFP or a family member or close associate of a PEFP, and if so, he must obtain senior management approval before opening an account for John, take enhanced measures to verify John’s identity, and conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of John’s account activity. Option C is false because Maalik does not need to collect personal information about John and report it to his dealer if John wants to make a large cash deposit; rather, he must verify John’s identity using an original, valid, and current document or information from a reliable source, keep a record of John’s name and address and the date and amount of the deposit, and report any large cash transactions of $10,000 or more in Canadian currency or its equivalent to FINTRAC within 15 days of receiving the cash. Option D is false because Maalik does not need to report the attempt to his dealer if John attempts to make a suspicious deposit; rather, he must report the attempt directly to FINTRAC within 30 days of detecting the suspicion, regardless of whether the transaction was completed or not. References: [FINTRAC - Home], [FINTRAC - Reporting], [FINTRAC - Guideline 2: Suspicious Transactions], [FINTRAC - Guideline 6A: Record Keeping and Client Identification for Financial Entities]

This is because a target date fund is designed to reduce the risk and volatility of the portfolio as the investor gets closer to their retirement or other savings goal. Equities tend to have higher returns but also higher risk than fixed income, so a target date fund gradually reduces the exposure to equities and increases the exposure to fixed income over time. This way, the investor can benefit from the growth potential of equities in the early years and preserve their capital with the stability of fixed income in the later years. 

The Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) is a program that allows eligible first-time home buyers to withdraw up to $35,000 from their registered retirement savings plans (RRSPs) to buy or build a qualifying home without paying any tax on the withdrawal. The withdrawn amount must be repaid to the RRSP over a period of up to 15 years, starting from the second year after the withdrawal. If the required repayment for a year is not made, it is added to the taxpayer’s income and subject to tax. Therefore, option B describes a feature of the HBP. The other options are not correct descriptions of the HBP. Option A is false because to qualify as a first-time home buyer, you or your spouse must not have owned and lived in another home as your principal place of residence during the four-year period before the date of withdrawal. Option C is false because a qualifying home must be purchased or built before October 1 of the year following the year of withdrawal. Option D is false because if you have a spouse or common-law partner, each of you can withdraw up to $35,000 from your RRSPs, not $50,000. References: [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP)], [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) - Canada.ca], [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Implied needs of your clients are needs reflected by statements made by clients regarding problems and dissatisfactions1. For example, a client may say “I’m worried about outliving my savings” or “I don’t understand how this investment works”. These statements imply that the client has a need for retirement planning or financial education, respectively. Implied needs are different from explicit needs, which are statements of wants and needs made by clients1. For example, a client may say “I want to save for my child’s education” or “I need a low-risk investment”. These statements express the client’s goals and preferences clearly. Statements made by you showing readiness to solve a client’s problem are not implied needs, but rather responses to implied needs1. For example, you may say “I can help you create a retirement plan that suits your lifestyle” or “I can explain how this investment works and what are the benefits and risks”. Statements made by clients expressing the desire for lower commissions are not implied needs, but rather objections or concerns that may arise during the sales process2. For example, a client may say “Your fees are too high” or “I can get a better deal elsewhere”. These statements may indicate that the client is not convinced of the value of your service or product, or that they are trying to negotiate a lower price. References: Unit 2: Know Your Client, Unit 10: Sales Process

The Client Relationship Model (CRM) and Client Focused Reforms (CFR) are regulatory initiatives that aim to enhance the relationship between registered firms and their clients by imposing higher standards of conduct and disclosure. One of the obligations under CRM and CFR is to provide clients with information about the costs, expenses, and ongoing fees associated with an investment prior to executing a trade. This includes disclosing the management expense ratio (MER), sales charges, deferred sales charges (DSC), switch fees, short-term trading fees, and trailer fees of a mutual fund. This information helps clients understand the impact of fees on their returns and compare different investment options. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what Portia must do in order to satisfy her obligations under CRM and CFR. The other options are not correct. Option A is false because Portia does not need to calculate the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) and report it to Clive in the trade confirmation; rather, the NAVPU is determined by the mutual fund manager and reported by the mutual fund dealer in the trade confirmation. Option B is false because Portia must not mark the trade as unsolicited if Clive wants to proceed with the trade and it is not suitable for him; rather, Portia must act in Clive’s best interest and advise him against making an unsuitable trade or decline to execute it. Option D is false because Portia does not need to provide Clive with the pre-trade disclosure to address any material conflicts of interest with the trade; rather, Portia must disclose any material conflicts of interest with the client relationship as part of the relationship disclosure information (RDI) that is provided at account opening and updated as necessary. References: [Client Relationship Model - Phase 2 (CRM2) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Client Focused Reforms | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Client Focused Reforms - FAQs | IFIC]